السلام عليكم Is there any specific ahkam related to the re-enslavement of a kafir slave who was freed by his Muslim master but traveled and settled in the land of Dar al Harb & muslim seized him in Jihad or was captured by other Kuffar? Is it permissible for the Muslims to buy and keep him/her as a slave or he must be set free? Note: Slave is still Kafir

We were in a workshop where there was a case study in which we were acting as leaders of tribe and discussing how our tribe should be allowed to go to a stone and perform religious ceremony and worship. As a leader of the tribe, I had to negotiate for my tribe to be allowed to go and do worship. A lot of discussion included me saying "allow us this time to go there and let us pray" Did I perform shirk? There was no intention. It was just for the case study and only a role play. We did not do shirk. Only for the case study we had to fight a case of letting or people go and worship stones. Please help as I'm worried

Someone mentioned, in a comment on one of my previous questions, that Muslims believe that King David was a Muslim. Is this indeed the generally held belief across the Muslim world? How can this be? David was the king of Israel, from the Tribe of Judah, wrote commentary on the Torah and led the Jewish people. Also there is no evidence he was ever in Mecca. If he was Muslim, how can you explain all the historical contradictions?

Assalamu 'Alaikum dear brothers and sisters A Christian recently argued with me by quoting Al Ahqaf:30 that Prophet (S) had the Original Thaurath in his hands. Here is what he said: > "Let me give you some more proof that the Torah at the time of > Mohammed was the truth, acording to your Prophet. Take for example > Surah Al-Ahqaf verse 30, in your major translations by Muslims. > Take the translation by Abdullah Yusuf Ali. It says: "They said, "O > our people, we have heard a book revealed after Moses, confirming what > came before it; it guides (men) to the truth and to a straight path." > Look at the words highlighted above that say "before it." In the > Arabic the words are not "before it." Let's do a word for word > translation, and I leave it to the Arabic reader to be honest to > himself when he reading this word for word translation: Arabic: kaloo > ya kawmana inna sami'ina kitaban unzila ba'd Musa English: they said > O our people we have heard a book revealed after Moses Arabic: > Musadekan Lima Bayna Yadayehe English: confirming what is between his > hands Arabic: Yahdee ela al-hak wa-ela tareekin mustakeem English: > it guides to the truth and to a straight path My point is the un > corrupted BIBLE was in their hands at the time of Mohammed. Where is > the uncorrupted copy of the BIBLE. Why is it that we have copies of > the BIBLE from the &th century and copies from the 4th 3nd the 2nd and > we also have copies from the 10th 12 th an up to today and all say the > same thing. all come from the same manuscripts in Hebrew, Greek and > Aramaic. So I dont have a clue what youare talking about. you are just > repeating what you have been told. I suggest you go study your own > religion first before you comment on a religion you dont know anything > about." I replied like this: > "Here is the right translation. Of Ahqaf:30 > > {They said, "O our people! We have heard a Book revealed after Moses, > confirmation for what is before it: it guides to the Truth and to > Straight Path. } > One thing you said is right.The word-by-word > translation says “What is between its hands”.It is an Arabic idiom for > saying 'In front of' or 'before'.See Al Baqara 66 for Example. > Now you > have quoted Ahqaf:30 and stated that Original Thourath existed at the > time of Prophet Muhammed (S). > My question:Where does it say that > 'Thaurath exist in its original form'? Nowhere.It just says that > Qur'an conforms the Thaurath.It says about the Thaurath,which is > already corrupted. How can you know that the manuscripts you > said,which belongs to 2nd,3rd,4th centuries,etc are not corrupted? > Just have a check at the Great Isaiah Scroll: > http://www.answering-christianity.com/topic_1996.htm " He said: > "You getting your information from answeringchristianuty.com no wonder > you are confused. This guy Osama Abdullah fabricated emails, then had > to admit and apologize. This is your source of information a confessed > liar. A man whi CHRISTIAN PRINCE destroyed in every debate. Wow you > are really lost. Seeing that you cannot read either Arabic or English. > The verse says BETWEEN HIS HANDS that sir means the prophet had the > uncorrupted copy in his hands. The words translated as BEFORE IT > doesnot mean that it is a deception the proper translation of BAYNA > YADAYEHE. Is BETWEEN HIS HANDS. Your lieing schollar neglected to tell > you what the arabic really says. My next question would be, WHY WOULD > YOU HAVE TO LIE TO PROVE THE BOOK OF UTHMAN TO BE TRUE?." As you see,he didn't accept what I said: "The word-by-word translation says "What is between its hands".It is an Arabic idiom for saying 'In front of' or 'before'.See Al Baqara 66 for Example." In Holy Qur'an 2:65-66 Allah says: > بِسْمِ اللَّهِ الرَّحْمَـٰنِ الرَّحِيمِ > > { وَلَقَدْ عَلِمْتُمُ الَّذِينَ اعْتَدَوْا مِنكُمْ فِي السَّبْتِ > فَقُلْنَا لَهُمْ كُونُوا قِرَدَةً خَاسِئِينَ > > And you had already known about those who transgressed among you > concerning the sabbath, and We said to them, "Be monkeys, despised." > > فَجَعَلْنَاهَا نَكَالًا لِّمَا بَيْنَ يَدَيْهَا وَمَا خَلْفَهَا > وَمَوْعِظَةً لِّلْمُتَّقِينَ >And We made it a deterrent punishment > for those who were present and those who succeeded [them] and a lesson > for those who fear Allah. } The verse 66 says “Bayna Yadayha” which means 'between her hands'.But it is absurd to translate it like that. Similarly, there are other verses like: > {And it is He who sends the winds as good tidings before His mercy, > and We send down from the sky pure water}(Holy Qur'an 25:48) Now,before replying to that Kafir,I just want to conform my point: In Arabic,'Between the hands' means means 'before' and 'in front of'.It is an idiom or figurative speech. I need conformation for that Please say if I am right or wrong. _____ ### EDIT ### P.S: Our debate was of course about the preservation the Bible/Thaurath/Injeel. I am preparing answers to give him.I can get that also from the answering-christianity blog(http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php) But my real doubt is,as the title of my question says,the meaning of 'bayna yadayhi' or 'between his hands'(Please reread the last part of my question).I asked it here because I thought there would be people knowing more Arabic. I hope I will get a good reply from here. Thank you. Salam, S.H.O

Is it allowed to offer Jummah prayer inside the house when moving outside could be dangerous and/or life threatening? How do we know our jummah or any other prayer is being accepted? How do I make up for the Jummah prayers I have missed for months?

I was told that Mahdi will pass away and jesus will bury him and pray funeral prayer over him. I cant locate the quotes except a link which mentions ambiguous sources. Google search isn't giving out anything except for the same webpage > sometime will pass, then Imam Mahdi will pass away. Hazrat Isa (as) will offer his funeral. http://nasirislam.com/Signoflasthour/Isa(as).html Is there a hadith for jesus burying Mahdi and jesus offering funeral prayer?

I see that Islam has given very good options for people to remain sexually fit. My question is that nowadays usually people have only one marriage and even that at an age of 25-37 (my own observation, which may be very wrong). Now there is a whole lot of time in between which is spent without having a wife. In all of this time, if a person tries to control himself from doing sex, he can go weird and unusual (this creates a lot of tension, depression and other health problems, as I read). A man can not wait for so many years for sex. So if he is in a position that he can not control it any further, can he masturbate?

I feel embarrassed asking this. But is it permissible for me to mastrubate just for the reason of semen release and colour check. Both of these reasons are health reasons but I want to clarify that no doctors are involved and I only do it once a month for the reason not to make it a habit and start to do it for desire By health reasons I mean the reason not for semen to build up and cause long term problems Please know my intentions are good and even doing it only once a month

I remembered that I kept a picture of someone wearing amulet in necklace. But the thing is I'm not sure if that thing is amulet or not I just keep the picture of person just to look at them. However, I do not believe that amulets can bring good luck or whatsoever. Have I made a sin?

Do these narrations exist? > “(The barefoot, naked, deaf and dumb) are the top leaders of the people” This means the kings of the earth as explicitly stated in al-Isma‘īlī’s narrations, and Abū Farwa names the kings in his narrations. Those meant are the people of the desert, as explicitly stated in Sulayman al-Taymī’s and other narrations: “Who are the barefoot and naked?” He replied: “The little Arabs (al-‘urayb).” (Another website also cites Sulayman al-Taymī saying "the Bedouin Arabs.") The closest I've found is Musnad Ahmad Hambal 2924 but that just says "The Arabs." Are these prophecies real?

From [Wikipedia](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nizari) : > The Nizari Ismailis have always maintained that the Imamah (also known as 'Imamat') can only be inherited from the current Imam to a direct descendant in a father-to-son (or grandson) hereditary lineage starting with Imam Ali and then to Imam Hussain and so on until their present and living 49th Imam, Prince Karim al-Husayni Aga Khan IV. From [Wikipedia](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infallibility) : > In Shi'a theology, the belief is that the Ahl al-Bayt, including Muhammad, his daughter Fatima Zahra and **Shi'a Imams** are all infallible and do not make mistakes. According to Nizaris, they believe the Imamah continues. **Question:** Do Nizari Ismaili Shias believe in the infallibility of all the Imams? As stated above, Shias believe that their Imams are infallible. **Do Nizaris believe in infallibility and if they do so they believe in the infallibility of all the Imams, including the present** [**Aga Khan**](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aga_Khan) ?

Quran 54:11 > Then We opened the gates of the heaven with rain pouring down I know the lowest heaven and all the rest have gates because in the hadith of the Prophet salallahu alayhi wasallam he knocked on the gates of the heaven in order to enter it, but does this verse mean the sky above us also has gates?

Is a Harbi a person who's at war with Muslims? Or does merely living in a non Muslim state with no treaty make one a Harbi? If a person did not do anything to harm the Muslims can he be considered a Harbi?

If the Qur'an, as it claims, is a linguistic miracle inimitable by mankind or jinn, then how can it quote anyone. Let me put it with examples: In Surah Taha (from verse 25), the Prophet Musa (ﷺ) says the following in response to Allah giving him the mission to preach to the Pharaoh: > قَالَ رَبِّ ٱشْرَحْ لِى صَدْرِى ٢٥ وَيَسِّرْ لِىٓ أَمْرِى ٢٦ وَٱحْلُلْ > عُقْدَةًۭ مِّن لِّسَانِى ٢٧ يَفْقَهُوا۟ قَوْلِى ٢٨ وَٱجْعَل لِّى > وَزِيرًۭا مِّنْ أَهْلِى ٢٩ هَـٰرُونَ أَخِى ٣٠ ٱشْدُدْ بِهِۦٓ أَزْرِى > ٣١ وَأَشْرِكْهُ فِىٓ أَمْرِى ٣٢ كَىْ نُسَبِّحَكَ كَثِيرًۭا ٣٣ > وَنَذْكُرَكَ كَثِيرًا ٣٤ إِنَّكَ كُنتَ بِنَا بَصِيرًۭا But these verses have rhyme, rhythm, and of course it does, it's the Qur'an. But they are the words of the Prophet Musa (ﷺ), so did he speak in such incredible eloquence? Of course here, I suppose, he didn't speak Arabic, so Allah can just paraphrase it from the ancient Egyptian language into Arabic. But then what about the whole starting of Surah al Jinn. It's some Jinn during the time of the Prophet Muhammad (ﷺ) speaking, and that too with eloquence. Now, since they were at the time of the Prophet (ﷺ), understood the Qur'an's Arabic, they probably did speak in Arabic, right? So would this disprove the Qur'an? The Jinn that spoke, spoke before the Surah was revealed obviously. I hope I am able to explain it properly, but if these were words of a Jinn, that is also in the Qur'an, wouldn't this show that a Jinn produced verses similar to the Qur'an? Arab poets were struggling to find a single word that could be improved in the Qur'anic text, so it's pretty impressive for a Jinn to do multiple verses. And I don't think Allah would paraphrase this, since if it was in Arabic, then Allah shouldn't, because what He says is absolutely true in all respects. If you say that the Jinn did speak in a language other than Arabic, then is there any Hadith that proved Jinn did use a language outside Arabic in Arabia. Or perhaps Jinns lived long enough that they would still resort to some ancient dead language, but still understood Arabic alongside because Arabic was used amongst the humankind. So this can be disproven if there is some hadith to show one of the following: 1. A direct response: A Hadith where the Prophet (ﷺ) answers this questions (pretty unlikely I suppose) 2. A Hadith where the Prophet (ﷺ) says that Jinns knew other languages outside Arabic. 3. A Hadith saying Jinns lived forever 4. A Hadith saying Jinns lived for a very long time It would be better for the higher one in the list to be answered, as the higher ones can be used as a more plausible explanation. If there is any other way to disprove this "Jinn's words in the Qur'an" claim, it would be fine as well as long as it's explained. I hope to get an answer to this question, because I can't, so thanks to whoever can help.

My question is that can a person repay the debt of his deceased friend? There is a confusion since he is not his heir.

Is it necessary to do qada of fajr sunnah and of witr?

> Aishah [R.A] reported that the Messenger of Allah [S.A.W] used to recite "Qul huwallahu ahad", "Qul a'oothu birrabilfalaq" and "Qul a'oothu birrabinnaas" every night when he went to sleep, then wiped his face and whatever he was able from his body, beginning with his head and face, and what faces him from his body, three times". al-Bukhaari #5017 How exactly should I wipe my face and body? Should I recite the 3 surahs first then spit lightly on my hand and then wipe and then repeat again 2 times? Or should I spit lightly after reading each surah till the third one then wipe my face and my body then repeat? Or some other method? Also, how exactly should I be blowing on my hands? Please clarify.

As per Qur'an or Sunnah, once the good deeds are erased, can they ever be brought back? Or are they lost forever? I know it is entirely Allah(SWT)'s will, to return them or not. But, I want to know if any evidence exists that a certain deed or action can return the lost good deeds.

This: https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/48208/traveling-during-ramadan-should-i-still-fast made me think about the following question: What if a person -like somebody who is on a journey during Ramadan- who had the choice not to fast, but decided to fast before the end of the day broke his/her fast. This person started the day fasting in Ramadan (even if he/she had the permission to eat), but later maybe due to heat or whatever reason decided to break his/her fast before the sunset. What are the views of scholars about this: Do they need only to fast that day as qada' or is a kafara necessary ...?

Assalamoalaikum! Can muslims take an oath by touching Quran on the name of Allah. My question is if permissible to do in Islam on serious matters? Such as saving home, keeping the husband and wife relationship to get their trust back on the their spouse? For Example, A husband denies to take oath as he says it is not permissible in Islam for touching Quran on the name of Allah. So can he take an oath by touching Quran and on the name of Allah.