Assalamu 'Alaikum dear brothers and sisters A Christian recently argued with me by quoting Al Ahqaf:30 that Prophet (S) had the Original Thaurath in his hands. Here is what he said: > "Let me give you some more proof that the Torah at the time of > Mohammed was the truth, acording to your Prophet. Take for example > Surah Al-Ahqaf verse 30, in your major translations by Muslims. > Take the translation by Abdullah Yusuf Ali. It says: "They said, "O > our people, we have heard a book revealed after Moses, confirming what > came before it; it guides (men) to the truth and to a straight path." > Look at the words highlighted above that say "before it." In the > Arabic the words are not "before it." Let's do a word for word > translation, and I leave it to the Arabic reader to be honest to > himself when he reading this word for word translation: Arabic: kaloo > ya kawmana inna sami'ina kitaban unzila ba'd Musa English: they said > O our people we have heard a book revealed after Moses Arabic: > Musadekan Lima Bayna Yadayehe English: confirming what is between his > hands Arabic: Yahdee ela al-hak wa-ela tareekin mustakeem English: > it guides to the truth and to a straight path My point is the un > corrupted BIBLE was in their hands at the time of Mohammed. Where is > the uncorrupted copy of the BIBLE. Why is it that we have copies of > the BIBLE from the &th century and copies from the 4th 3nd the 2nd and > we also have copies from the 10th 12 th an up to today and all say the > same thing. all come from the same manuscripts in Hebrew, Greek and > Aramaic. So I dont have a clue what youare talking about. you are just > repeating what you have been told. I suggest you go study your own > religion first before you comment on a religion you dont know anything > about." I replied like this: > "Here is the right translation. Of Ahqaf:30 > > {They said, "O our people! We have heard a Book revealed after Moses, > confirmation for what is before it: it guides to the Truth and to > Straight Path. } > One thing you said is right.The word-by-word > translation says “What is between its hands”.It is an Arabic idiom for > saying 'In front of' or 'before'.See Al Baqara 66 for Example. > Now you > have quoted Ahqaf:30 and stated that Original Thourath existed at the > time of Prophet Muhammed (S). > My question:Where does it say that > 'Thaurath exist in its original form'? Nowhere.It just says that > Qur'an conforms the Thaurath.It says about the Thaurath,which is > already corrupted. How can you know that the manuscripts you > said,which belongs to 2nd,3rd,4th centuries,etc are not corrupted? > Just have a check at the Great Isaiah Scroll: > http://www.answering-christianity.com/topic_1996.htm " He said: > "You getting your information from answeringchristianuty.com no wonder > you are confused. This guy Osama Abdullah fabricated emails, then had > to admit and apologize. This is your source of information a confessed > liar. A man whi CHRISTIAN PRINCE destroyed in every debate. Wow you > are really lost. Seeing that you cannot read either Arabic or English. > The verse says BETWEEN HIS HANDS that sir means the prophet had the > uncorrupted copy in his hands. The words translated as BEFORE IT > doesnot mean that it is a deception the proper translation of BAYNA > YADAYEHE. Is BETWEEN HIS HANDS. Your lieing schollar neglected to tell > you what the arabic really says. My next question would be, WHY WOULD > YOU HAVE TO LIE TO PROVE THE BOOK OF UTHMAN TO BE TRUE?." As you see,he didn't accept what I said: "The word-by-word translation says "What is between its hands".It is an Arabic idiom for saying 'In front of' or 'before'.See Al Baqara 66 for Example." In Holy Qur'an 2:65-66 Allah says: > بِسْمِ اللَّهِ الرَّحْمَـٰنِ الرَّحِيمِ > > { وَلَقَدْ عَلِمْتُمُ الَّذِينَ اعْتَدَوْا مِنكُمْ فِي السَّبْتِ > فَقُلْنَا لَهُمْ كُونُوا قِرَدَةً خَاسِئِينَ > > And you had already known about those who transgressed among you > concerning the sabbath, and We said to them, "Be monkeys, despised." > > فَجَعَلْنَاهَا نَكَالًا لِّمَا بَيْنَ يَدَيْهَا وَمَا خَلْفَهَا > وَمَوْعِظَةً لِّلْمُتَّقِينَ >And We made it a deterrent punishment > for those who were present and those who succeeded [them] and a lesson > for those who fear Allah. } The verse 66 says “Bayna Yadayha” which means 'between her hands'.But it is absurd to translate it like that. Similarly, there are other verses like: > {And it is He who sends the winds as good tidings before His mercy, > and We send down from the sky pure water}(Holy Qur'an 25:48) Now,before replying to that Kafir,I just want to conform my point: In Arabic,'Between the hands' means means 'before' and 'in front of'.It is an idiom or figurative speech. I need conformation for that Please say if I am right or wrong. _____ ### EDIT ### P.S: Our debate was of course about the preservation the Bible/Thaurath/Injeel. I am preparing answers to give him.I can get that also from the answering-christianity blog(http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php) But my real doubt is,as the title of my question says,the meaning of 'bayna yadayhi' or 'between his hands'(Please reread the last part of my question).I asked it here because I thought there would be people knowing more Arabic. I hope I will get a good reply from here. Thank you. Salam, S.H.O

Is there any evidence that Isa (a.s.) wrote the Injeel in book form? Because it seems that Allah has already gave him the Injeel when he was a baby. > [Jesus] said, "Indeed, I am the servant of Allah . He has given me the Scripture and made me a prophet. > > Quran 19:30 Isa (a.s.) said this as a baby after his mother gave birth to him and took him to her people. So I was thinking that Allah put the revelations in his mind beforehand and the Injeel was never actually written. This whole time the Injeel was just memorized inside Isa's mind. **If the Injeel was actually a written text, don't you think someone would have found it by now?** Instead, people keep finding very old un-canonical gospels written by Isa's disciples. No one ever finds the actual Injeel or what some people call "The Gospel of Jesus". I could be wrong but I think the Injeel was in Isa's mind this whole time....not in actual text.

Why did Allah send more than one book to mankind.Explain your Answer. Please consider adding references from the quran and sunnah to your answer.

I've read this verse several times that dreams are 1/46 part of Prophethood. Ṣaḥīḥ al-Bukhārī 6614, Ṣaḥīḥ Muslim 2263 What exactly does this mean in relation to the number 46, or more precisely, what is the remaining 45/46?

As we know, Allah has given Muslims Eid al Adha, Eid al Fitr and Ramadan. As far as I’m concerned, I know that Allah has assigned fasting for the Jews and Christians because He says so in the Quran. But what about religious holidays? Of course Christmas has nothing to do with Christianity, but what about Hanukkah for the Jews? We Muslims celebrate Passover like the Jews do, so does that mean Allah has also given the Jews a holiday to celebrate that is Hanukkah and acceptable in His eyes for them to do? Thank you for your answers!

I am trying to figure out how the original (Kufic Script) Quran would have handled the case of words at the end of the line being too long to fit. In English, we sometimes add _hyphenation_ like this: This is a really long sentence with lots of extreme- ly long words, of course. But what do you do in Arabic? This seems to be an [open problem for the W3C](https://www.w3.org/TR/alreq/#h_hyphenation) : > **ISSUE 18** > > Does Arabic script text use hyphenation? If so, is the use of hyphenation language-specific? > > What are the rules? Are there any general rules that transcend all languages? I am in particular wondering about the original Quran, which didn't have vowels or diacritics of any kind, but seems to have used spaces at least between words. I would like to know what to do when the word is too long at the end of the line. Can you just "break" the word wherever? Or are there specific rules on how it can break? In English, some "breaks" are more preferred over others, some breaks wouldn't make much sense: This is a really long sentence with lots of e- xtremely long words. This is a really long sentence with lots of extremel -y long words. This is a really lon- g sentence with lots o- f extremely long words. I don't know what the rules are even for English (in detail), but I'm wondering (a) if there are detailed rules for this written down somewhere for Arabic (specifically the early Kufic script Quran), and (b) if so, generally what they are and where I can find more info. If there aren't, then what is the convention used in the original Qurans? Right now I am just cutting the word off it's too long right at the "too long" point, and moving to the next line, but sometimes this means 1 letter is on the next line which seems like a no-no.

I understand that Islam holds the previous revelation from God to mankind in high esteem, and that the "Psalms, Torah, Prophets and Gospel" are considered to be authentic. Nevertheless there also seems to be this view that all these previous revelations have been corrupted. My essential question is: to what extent? Is it considered profitable to pick up a bible and read the Psalms, Prophets, Torah and Gospel, despite their being corrupted? Or are they considered to be so far gone that there's no point reading them because what you would be reading is so corrupted that it's nothing like the original revelation? Is there any value in reading the Torah, Psalms, Prophets, and Gospel today? To what extent have they been corrupted?

Islamic scriptures are closed i.e. they are self sufficient to explain all phenomenon. They do not need help of other religious doctrines. Islamic scriptures do not need reference to Hindu or Christians or Buddhists directly. However the reality is different. In reality there are religions other than Islam. Today’s spiritual space is not only made up Allah but also Ram, Jesus and Buddha. Considering this my question is the following : Is Islamic spiritual space immune to Hindu , Christian and Buddhist influence ? Are the Hindu , Muslim , Christian and Buddhist gods interacting with each other in some way? Does a prayer sent by ,let us say a Christian , influence Allah ? (Or does a prayer sent by Hindu , influence Allah?)

*I realize this is a rather broad question. I'm looking for a broad answer as well, with just a general overview of the relevant material. I will likely ask more specific followup questions.* As Islam was founded several hundred years after Christianity, and is also an Abrahamic religion, and Islam, for example, views [Jesus as a prophet of Allah](https://islam.stackexchange.com/a/365/29) , whose life is most well known through the Christian New Testament, I am left wondering how Islam regards these religious texts. What is the relationship between Islam and the Christian [New Testament](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/New_Testament) ? What authority, if any, does it have, and how should it be read and understood by a Muslim?

From NewMuslims.com : > ...those for whom the message of Islam did not reach, or **it may have reached them but was distorted**, or they did not hear about Prophet Muhammad, may Allah praise him. They will be tested on the Day of Judgment. Those who obey will be saved, those who disobey will be doomed. A comparable quote is at Islam Q&A : > Everyone who hears the message of Islam in a sound and correct form (and rejects it), will have evidence aginst him. Whoever dies without having heard the message, **or having heard it in a distorted form**, then his case is in the hands of Allaah. Allaah knows best about His creation, and He will never treat anyone unfairly. And Allaah is All-Seer of His slaves. -- Sheikh Muhammed Salih Al-Munajjid, 1998 **Question**: In what ways can the message of Islam be distorted? Basically, I'm seeking some examples of how the message of Islam might be conveyed in a distorted form. I suspect the these sources are primarily referring to People of the Book , but I'm not fully clear on this. Something along these lines: > The **Islamic view of the Christian Bible** is based on the belief that the Quran says that parts of Bible are a revelation from God, but **believe that some of it has become distorted or corrupted (tahrif)**, and that a lot of text has been added which was not part of the revelation. -- Islamic view of the Christian Bible , Wikipedia But it may also include other ways of being distorted. Indeed, Westerners often see extremal versions of Islam in the news, which could be reasonably considered as "distorted": > In some of our countries, including the United States, Muslim communities are still small and relative to the entire population, and as a result, many people in our countries don’t always know personally somebody who is Muslim. So **the image they get of Muslims or Islam is in the news, and given the existing news cycle, that can give a very distorted impression**. -- US President Barack Obama, sourced from CNS News , 2015.

I am learning about Islam and have noticed people mentioning Hadith and Qur'an, I am not entirely sure what if any difference there is between them, for example. Is the Qur'an like the Bible and a Hadith a proverb within the Qur'an or is a Hadith an entire book within the Qur'an like the Torah is within the Bible. Or is the Hadith a separate set of scripture/book to the Qur'an. Also, I have heard that the Qur'an is considered superior than Hadith, as in, if you read a verse in Hadith that contradicts the Quran then the Quran is considered the authority. Can I have some help understanding this, please?

I am friends with a Muslim couple who are having a baby. I wrote a song to dedicate to the child in celebration of its upcoming birth. I know roughly what sentiment I want to give for the title of my song. I am not religious. But I am drawing from what I know. In Christianity, the phrase "A Child Made in God's Image" would be appropriate for my song because Christians believe all men and women are made in God's image. And something that is created in the image of God is pure, holy, and sacred. I would like to find an equivalent phrase in Arabic that carries the same kind of sentiment in Islam. # My Question Can someone provide me with such a phrase to title my song?

My first question is what are the scriptures every Muslim (or Islam follower) should abide by? In other words, what scriptures are considered the fundamental/basic on which Islam is based on? Or What are the very important scriptures that are considered as highest/top?

Here's the wiki link which describes it. Genesis Creation Narrative . I ask because I believe I have figured out how it began and it shows that the first 9 verses of The Bible are correct but said in a code-like way. So I was wondering if The Qur'an had a clearer less code-like explanation of the beginning of everything. My site where I believe I have figured out how it all started is at http://life.mzzhost.com/text.pdf So, please try to answer the title which asks it in a clear way. Hopefully you forgive any errors I might have made in asking this question. Edit: The site I linked appears not to be working so email me for the .pdf file at paul.obrien.hunter@outlook.com. I tried other ways to share the file but they do not work as I am on a bad phone.

I have been doing some Googling for the Injil but I seem to be finding Christian websites that are trying to evangelise instead. Is there a version of the Injil out on the web that Muslims would read, rather than a rebranded new testament or is the new testament what Muslims would read? I have read this question: https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/1323/how-does-islam-view-the-christian-new-testament

This is a follow-up questions for this one and a similar (though not the same) to this one . Supposing the Injil/New Testament was changed, what was in it originally? I know there are some hints in Quran for this, and I'm interrested in other islamic sources (Hadith or prominent Muslim scholars) too, if they address this topic. EDIT: I'm also interrested in what is in Bible and wasn't in Injil according to Islam. Some issues are well known (whether Jesus was God or just a prophet, crucifixion etc.), but I have few more subquestions, especially concerning morale. According to Quran and other Islamic sources, is it possible to assess whether these parts were (or could be) in Injil or not? a) all food is clean: Mark 7:14-23 > Again Jesus called the crowd to him and said, “Listen to me, everyone, > and understand this. Nothing outside a person can defile them by going > into them. Rather, it is what comes out of a person that defiles > them.” > After he had left the crowd and entered the house, his > disciples asked him about this parable. “Are you so dull?” he asked. > “Don’t you see that nothing that enters a person from the outside can > defile them? For it doesn’t go into their heart but into their > stomach, and then out of the body.” (In saying this, Jesus declared > all foods clean.) He went on: “What comes out of a person is what > defiles them. For it is from within, out of a person’s heart, that > evil thoughts come—sexual immorality, theft, murder, adultery, greed, > malice, deceit, lewdness, envy, slander, arrogance and folly. All > these evils come from inside and defile a person.” b) connected - importance of love and purity of heart: Matthew 5:21-22a > “You have heard that it was said to the people long ago, ‘You shall > not murder, and anyone who murders will be subject to judgment.’ But I > tell you that anyone who is angry with a brother or sister will be > subject to judgment. There are similar passages for other sins next to this one, ending with this: Matthew 5:43-48 > “You have heard that it was said, ‘Love your neighbor and hate your > enemy.’ But I tell you, love your enemies and pray for those who > persecute you, that you may be children of your Father in heaven. > He causes his sun to rise on the evil and the good, and sends rain on > the righteous and the unrighteous. If you love those who love you, > what reward will you get? Are not even the tax collectors doing that? > And if you greet only your own people, what are you doing more than > others? Do not even pagans do that? Be perfect, therefore, as your > heavenly Father is perfect.

From an [MSNBC interview with Franklin Graham](www.youtube.com/watch?v=xScMJHcIecw) (starting about 3:05): > **Reporter**: You've said in the past that President Obama's father was Muslim, so that President Obama has the seed of Islam, I believe is how you put it, in his blood... > > **Graham**: No, it's not in his blood. Under Islamic law, under Sharia Law, Islam sees him as a son of Islam because his father was a Muslim, his grandfather was a Muslim, great-grandfater was a Muslim, and so under Islamic law, the Islamic world sees Barak Obama as a Muslim, as a son of Islam. That's just the way it works. That's the way they see it. But of course he says he didn't grow up that way, he didn't believe in that, he believes in Jesus Christ, so I accept that. So I'm just saying, in the Muslim world, they see him as a Muslim. 1. Is it true that the son of a Muslim has some special standing within Islam, even if he rejects Islam? 2. What is this special standing (referred to both as "son of Islam" and "seed of Islam" in the interview)? What is the scriptural and/or historical context of this special standing?