Why did Allah(swt) not talk to other prophets like he did to musa (as) why did he send an angel i.e jibreel (as).

According the hadith below prophet Musa A.S is given the ability to talk directly with Allah A.Z.W. > حَدَّثَنَا عَلِيُّ بْنُ عَبْدِ اللَّهِ، حَدَّثَنَا سُفْيَانُ، قَالَ حَفِظْنَاهُ مِنْ عَمْرٍو عَنْ طَاوُسٍ، سَمِعْتُ أَبَا هُرَيْرَةَ، عَنِ النَّبِيِّ صلى الله عليه وسلم قَالَ ‏ "‏ احْتَجَّ آدَمُ وَمُوسَى، فَقَالَ لَهُ مُوسَى يَا آدَمُ أَنْتَ أَبُونَا خَيَّبْتَنَا وَأَخْرَجْتَنَا مِنَ الْجَنَّةِ‏.‏ قَالَ لَهُ آدَمُ يَا مُوسَى اصْطَفَاكَ اللَّهُ بِكَلاَمِهِ، وَخَطَّ لَكَ بِيَدِهِ، أَتَلُومُنِي عَلَى أَمْرٍ قَدَّرَ اللَّهُ عَلَىَّ قَبْلَ أَنْ يَخْلُقَنِي بِأَرْبَعِينَ سَنَةً‏.‏ فَحَجَّ آدَمُ مُوسَى، فَحَجَّ آدَمُ مُوسَى ‏"‏ ثَلاَثًا‏.‏ قَالَ سُفْيَانُ حَدَّثَنَا أَبُو الزِّنَادِ، عَنِ الأَعْرَجِ، عَنْ أَبِي هُرَيْرَةَ، عَنِ النَّبِيِّ صلى الله عليه وسلم مِثْلَهُ‏.‏ > > Narrated Abu Huraira: The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "Adam and Moses argued with each other. Moses said to Adam. 'O Adam! You are our father who disappointed us and turned us out of Paradise.' Then Adam said to him, 'O Moses! Allah favored you with His talk (talked to you directly) and He wrote (the Torah) for you with His Own Hand. Do you blame me for action which Allah had written in my fate forty years before my creation?' So Adam confuted Moses, Adam confuted Moses," the Prophet (ﷺ) added, repeating the Statement three times. > > - [Sahih al Bukhari 6614](https://sunnah.com/bukhari:6614) Did the Prophet Musa A.S talk with Allah A.Z.W while on earth or by mean of angel-messengers? Also in the story of Mi‘raaj night journey Allah A.Z.W talk directly with Prophet S.A.W. While on earth, does Prophet S.A.W talk with Allah A.Z.W directly or by mean of angel-messengers?

Could you please provide an explanation for this with accuracy

Asalamualikum, Ive had this question for sometime now, but Im too afraid to ask someone in person. Prop Muhammed is deemed as the best prophet of all time, and that there were times when rock spoke about him, trees moved for him.Where as it is said that Prop Suleman had great control over all the realms , the Jins, the Animals, The Wind, the Sea etc. Didnt prophet Muhammed have the same power over all the realms, if yes then why did you not use them in the wars he fought. Thanks in Advance.

There have been roughly about 124,000 Prophets sent by Allah (swt) to mankind. Now all of these have been male. Is there a reason why none of them were female? I know that there are many women in Islam that have very high statuses and and loved very much by Allah (swt) but that goes besides my question.

, “He shall be a wild man; His hand shall be against every man, And every man's hand against him. And he shall dwell in the presence of all his brethren” what is the meaning of this prophecy on prophet ismail

I have often wondered why Allah did not instruct the Prophet Isa (Jesus) to establish the religion of Islam while He was living on the Earth, which took place during the years 0 A.D - 33 A.D.. The Qur'an states that Allah performed many miracles through the Prophet Isa, so I find it a bit strange that Allah did not also instruct the Prophet Isa to start writing down divine messages, revelations, and moral laws which Allah could have dictated to him, and then Allah could have instructed the Prophet Isa to create a book from this collection of holy writings which would have become the world's first Qur'an and thus the beginning of the religion of Islam. Why didn't Allah have the Prophet Isa establish the religion of Islam while He was living on the Earth?

I'm confused did jesus a.s get the injil when was 33 year old before his he get sent to heaven or when he returns? And if he get it when returns then why allah swt say he sent the injil even tho not yet?

The Quran suggests Muhammad is written about in what we have of the Torah and the Injeel in Quran 7:157 and other verses and hadiths. >Quran 7:157 "Those who follow the Messenger, the unlettered prophet, whom they find written in what they have of the Torah and the Gospel..." One of the prooftexts often provided is Deuteronomy 18:15-20. >Deuteronomy 18:15-20 [Moses speaking to the Israelites]15 The Lord your God will **raise up for you a prophet like me from among your midst, from your brothers.** You must listen to him. 16 For this is what you asked of the Lord your God at Horeb on the day of the assembly when you said, “Let us not hear the voice of the Lord our God nor see this great fire anymore, or we will die.” > >17 The Lord said to me [Moses]: “What they say is good. 18 **I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their brothers,** and I will put my words in his mouth. He will tell them everything I command him. 19 I myself will call to account anyone who does not listen to my words that the prophet speaks in my name. 20 But a prophet who presumes to speak in my name anything I have not commanded, or a prophet who speaks in the name of other gods, is to be put to death.” **What is the Islamic basis for understanding that a prophet "among your midst, among your brothers" could include the Ishmaelites as a possibility that would fulfill these verses?** An answer much more thorough than "because it doesn't exclude them explicitly" would be appreciated, as this is counter-intuitive. Additionally, the following data should be taken into consideration: In the same speech of Moses speaking to the Israelites, "brothers" seems to be more definitely restricted to Israelites (Deuteronomy 18:1-2), as the "brothers" have an inheritance, yet the Ishmaelites have no mention of an "inheritance" in Scripture. Again, in Deuteronomy 17:14-15, "brothers" are only part of those entering the Promised Land, the "land that God is giving you," which the Ishmaelites had no place in. The Ishmaelites were geographically quite separated from the Israelite location, so "among your midst" additionally appears to, on the surface, restrict this prophet to be an Israelite. Finally, "brothers" as a familial term seems to also restrict the prophet to be an Israelite. The Israelites and Ishmaelites, at this point, had already been separated in geography and genealogy for over 400 years; while it may seem reasonable to apply the phrase to relatively close genealogical members (though this distance isn't applied in chapters 17-18 mentioned previously), it seems highly unusual to use this term for those separated by such a great blood-relationship distance, many generations ago. So, really, to answer the main question as well as to address the all the data necessary, sub-questions would have to be answered (or counter-examples given): - **What good reason do Muslims propose is there to change the scope of the phrase "brothers" to include the Ishmaelites when it is previously restricted to Israelites in 17:14-15 and 18:1-2?** - **What good reason do Muslims propose is there for "among your midst" to apply to a people group that seems to be not "among your midst"?** (e.g. are there counter-examples in the Tanakh where "among your midst" also applies to two things geographically separated by many miles?) **I would really appreciate direction toward any Muslim scholarly literature that exists on the subject as well as any Muslim scholars familiar with Biblical Hebrew.** A discussion of the use of the term "brothers" and "among your midst" specifically in the Tanakh seems warranted. I recall "brothers" is used at some point in Scripture, though not in the same context, of Esau's descendants, which would still be Isaac's descendant. I welcome answers that dispute with any of the claims throughout this question. Let's leave the proposed corruption of the Bible out of the scope of this question.

Someone mentioned, in a comment on one of my previous questions, that Muslims believe that King David was a Muslim. Is this indeed the generally held belief across the Muslim world? How can this be? David was the king of Israel, from the Tribe of Judah, wrote commentary on the Torah and led the Jewish people. Also there is no evidence he was ever in Mecca. If he was Muslim, how can you explain all the historical contradictions?

According to Dr Zakir Naik, Allah is mentioned in Hindu scriptures: > "Allah" in Rigveda Book 2 Hymn I verse II Even in the Rigveda which is the most sacred scripture of the Hindus, one of the attributes given to God Almighty in Book no 2 Hymn no I verse II, is ‘Ila’ which if pronounced properly is the same as Allah. > Allo Upanishad: Amongst the various Upanishads one of the Upanishad is named as ‘Allo’ Upanishad in which God is referred to as "Allah" several times. [***Source***](http://www.islam101.com/tauheed/Aior.htm) > According to Bhavishya Purana in the Prati Sarag Parv III Khand 3 Adhay 3 Shloka 5 to 8. "A malecha (belonging to a foreign country and speaking a foreign language) spiritual teacher will appear with his companions. His name will be Mohammad. Raja (Bhoj) after giving this Maha Dev Arab (of angelic disposition) a bath in the Panchgavya and the Ganga water (i.e. purifying him of all sins) offered him the present of his sincere devotion and showing him all reverence said, "I make obeisance to thee. O ye! The pride of mankind, the dweller in Arabia, Ye have collected a great force to kill the Devil and you yourself have been protected from the malecha opponents." The Prophecy clearly states: - The name of the Prophet as Mohammad. - He will belong to Arabia. The Sanskrit word Marusthal means a sandy track of land or a desert. - Special mention is made of the companions of the Prophet, i.e. the Sahabas. No other Prophet had as many companions as Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). - He is referred as the pride of mankind (Parbatis nath). The Glorious Qur’an reconfirms this - "And thou (standest) on an exalted standard of character" [Al-Qur'an 68:4]| - "Ye have indeed in the Messenger of Allah, a beautiful pattern (of conduct)". [Al-Qur'an 33:21] - He will kill the devil, i.e. abolish idol worship and all sorts of vices. - The Prophet will be given protection against his enemy. - Some people may argue that ‘Raja’ Bhoj mentioned in the prophecy lived in the 11th century C.E. 500 years after the advent of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) and was the descendant in the 10th generation of Raja Shalivahan. These people fail to realise that there was not only one Raja of the name Bhoj. The Egyptian Monarchs were called as Pharaoh and the Roman Kings were known as Caesar, similarly the Indian Rajas were given the title of Bhoj. There were several Raja Bhoj who came before the one in 11th Century C.E. - The Prophet did not physically take a bath in the Panchgavya and the water of Ganges. Since the water of Ganges is considered holy, taking bath in the Ganges is an idiom, which means washing away sins or immunity from all sorts of sins. Here the prophecy implies that Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was sinless, i.e. Maasoom. [***Source***](http://www.islam101.com/religions/hinduism/Mhs.htm) The above gives evidence of Allah and Muhammad. **Question:** Is it possible that Hinduism was founded by a Prophet of Allah but has been changed into polytheism?

I was wondering about if Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) was best of all prophets (A.S)? I hear it from almost every scholar that Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) was best of all prophets (A.S); But I want to confirm it so please provide a Quranic Verse or Sahih Hadith to support this view. Thanks.

According to Qur'an, Allah gave many special favours to Bani Israel. In what way did he favour them? What was the reason for this? How is different from the prophets he sent to the rest of mankind that we don't know the names of? Also, given the above, why would Muhammad (peace) not be sent to the people Allah had already given so much to given the importance of Muhammad above all prophets? (Here the Christian claims that Israel was specifically chosen and prepared for the saving work which could then after Jesus be spread to the rest of mankind who never received the call to God. What is Islamic response to this?)

Quran states that God sent prophets to jinns just like humans. > Allah will ask,˺ “O assembly of jinn and humans! Did messengers not > come from among you, proclaiming My revelations and warning you of the > coming of this Day of yours?” They will say, “We confess against > ourselves!” For they have been deluded by ˹their˺ worldly life. And > they will testify against themselves that they were disbelievers. [\[6:130\]][1] Further, it seems to suggest Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was also a messenger/prophet for jinns, not just humans. > Say, ˹O Prophet,˺ “It has been revealed to me that a group of jinn > listened ˹to the Quran,˺ and said ˹to their fellow jinn˺: ‘Indeed, we > have heard a wondrous recitation. It leads to Right Guidance so we > believed in it, and we will never associate anyone with our Lord ˹in > worship˺. [\[72:1-2\]][2] However, I wasn't able to find any more references in the Quran that talks about the prophets of jinns. Given that, did God send prophets to jinns before Prophet Muhammad (pbuh)? If yes, do we know anything about these prophets? If no, can we conclude that Prophet Muhammad was the first prophet who had been sent to both humans and jinns?

Assalamu'alaikum, As we know Holy Qur'an is for both Mankind, and Jinn, there are lots of warnings, and guidance for both. But is there any Warner like our Prophets among Jinn for them? If no, then don't they need any? If no, then whats the explanation of this? Jazakallah Khair.

I am an employee being an admin of the company but I have to do arti I am Muslim girl now what should I do

Where was Noah's wife during the flood? Was she on board the ship with Noah or not? The fact that Prophet Noah (PBUH) prayed to G-d during the flood to save his son and only requested for his son and doesn't include his wife in that request could only mean one of two things.

Did our prophet[pbuh] order the sahabah to murder sleeping people according to Sahih al-Bukhari 3022 ? The true prophet did something like this? Or what's the context behind it? Please answer with detailed reference. The thing is causing a lot of trouble in my head.

It's known that not all prophets and messengers weren't mentioned by name in the Quran. Neither Quran narrates their lives in very great detail. However, we get some related or corroboratory information from the hadiths. But none of them are in that great details as they were narrated in Qisas Al-Anbiyas, e.g. by Ibn Kathir. How did those authors compile the stories of the prophets and messengers? What were their sources?

I have just recently heard about Zoroastrianism. I was curious to see what it was and surprised because a lot of the beliefs are similar to Islam for example monotheism, heaven/hell, prayer in a certain direction, originating from the Middle East, 5 times a day prayer, good vs evil, judgment after death, etc. A savior figure is also believed to come towards the end of times. It came before Islam where Zoroaster claimed he had a divine vision and therefore he began teaching others of monotheism. I have never heard of him before and I don’t think he’s mentioned anywhere in the Quran, but I’m not sure. Is it possible he was a prophet from Allah?