I have a question about Hadith 3199, Book 59, Hadith 10. In there is told by Abu Dar that he heard from Muhammad(pbuh) that the sun at sunset travels to the Throne of Allah and has to get permission before it is allowed to rise up again. It ends with telling that that is is what verse 36:38 of the Quran is refering to. Is this a correct Hadith? The chain must be correct to make it inside Sahih Bukhari and the narrator must be a trustworthy person. But is it possible that he heard it wrong from Muhammad(pbuh), misunderstanded it or even confused it with other things? In the past it would not be as strange as it is now in this scientific age. We know now that the earth rotates around the sun and around itself. It is not the sun that goes around the earth. The day that the sun comes up from the west will be caused by the earth that starts to rotate in the opposite way. And the sun too is moving inside the Milky Way galaxy and I though that the verse in the Hadith refers to that last movement instead of refering to the sunset and the sunrise. We also know that the sun at sunset is still shining at the opposite part of the earth. If we think at night that the sun went to the Throne of Allah what should the people at the other side of the earth think while for them it is day on that same moment? Is it just me who does not understand how that is possible, or is science not that far yet, or is it symbolic? Can it be misunderstood and narrated by a good man through a correct chain?

Assalamualaikum Can you provide a Sahih hadith that clearly states Aisha (RA) attained puberty at 9 before her marriage was consummated? There is no direct evidence confirming this. No authentic hadith states Aisha (RA) said, "I attained puberty before consummation." If a non-Muslim asks for proof she was mature at 9, what authentic references should I provide Jazakum Allahu Khairan.

The Hadith what Abu Hurairah said to all of us. Is the "your mother" part specifically tied to the specific sahaba where Muhammed peace be upon him said your mother 3 times then father. I would like to know because it seems the Grammer used there seemed specific to the sahaba. And if it should be a general rule for all of ummah to prioritize mother. Even if you father clearly one who almost dies working all day?

assalaamu alaykum I read a hadith in Tafsir al Tabari Sura An-Najim 53 verse 1 that Muhammad (saw) warned Abu Lahab or someone to fear the dog of Allah and it attacked him in Yemen and killed him? Is this hadith authentic is it true? Here is my reference... القول في تأويل قوله تعالى : وَالنَّجْمِ إِذَا هَوَى (1) اختلف أهل التأويل في تأويل قوله ( وَالنَّجْمِ إِذَا هَوَى ) فقال بعضهم: عُنِيَ بالنجم: الثُّريا وعُنِي بقوله ( إِذَا هَوَى ) : إذا سقط, قالوا: تأويل الكلام: والثريا إذا سقطت. * ذكر من قال ذلك: حدثني محمد بن عمرو, قال: ثنا أبو عاصم, قال: ثنا عيسى; وحدثني الحارث, قال: ثنا الحسن, قال: ثنا ورقاء جميعا, عن ابن أبي نجيح, عن مجاهد, قوله: ( وَالنَّجْمِ إِذَا هَوَى ) قال: إذا سقطت الثريا مع الفجر. حدثنا ابن حُميد. قال: ثنا مهران, عن سفيان ( وَالنَّجْمِ إِذَا هَوَى ) قال: الثريا، وقال مجاهد: ( وَالنَّجْمِ إِذَا هَوَى ) قال: سقوط الثريا. حدثني محمد بن سعد, قال: ثني أبي, قال: ثني عمي, قال: ثني أبي, عن أبيه, عن ابن عباس, قوله: ( وَالنَّجْمِ إِذَا هَوَى ) قال: إذا انصبّ. وقال آخرون: معنى ذلك: والقرآن إذا نـزل. * ذكر من قال ذلك: حدثني زياد بن عبد الله الحساني أبو الخطاب, قال: ثنا مالك بن &; 22-496 &; سعير, قال: ثنا الأعمش, عن مجاهد, في قوله ( وَالنَّجْمِ إِذَا هَوَى ) قال: القرآن إذا نـزل. حدثنا بشر, قال: ثنا يزيد, قال: ثنا سعيد, عن قتادة ( وَالنَّجْمِ إِذَا هَوَى * مَا ضَلَّ صَاحِبُكُمْ وَمَا غَوَى ) قال: قال عُتبة بن أبي لهب: كفرتُ بربّ النجم, فقال رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم: " أمَا تَخَافُ أنْ يَأكُلَكَ كَلْبُ اللهِ" قال: فخرج في تجارة إلى اليمن, فبينما هم قد عرَّسوا, إذ سمعَ صوتَ الأسد, فقال لأصحابه إني مأكول, فأحدقوا به, وضرب على أصمخّتهم فناموا, فجاء حتى أخذه, فما سمعوا إلا صوته. حدثنا ابن عبد الأعلى, قال: ثنا محمد بن ثور, قال: ثنا معمر, عن قتادة " أن النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم تلا( وَالنَّجْمِ إِذَا هَوَى ) فقال ابن لأبي لهب حسبته قال: اسمه عُتبة: كفرت بربّ النجم, فقال النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم: " احْذَرْ لا يأكُلكَ كَلْبُ الله "; قال: فضرب هامته. قال: وقال ابن طاوس عن أبيه, أن النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم قال: " ألا تَخاف أنْ يُسلِّطَ اللهُ عَلَيْك كَلْبَهُ؟" فخرج ابن أبي لهب مع ناس فى سفر حتى إذا كانوا في بعض الطريق سمعوا صوت الأسد. فقال: ما هو إلا يريدني, فاجتمع أصحابه حوله وجعلوه في وسطهم, حتى إذا ناموا جاء الأسد فأخذه من بينهم. وكان بعض أهل المعرفة بكلام العرب من أهل البصرة يقول: عنى بقوله: ( وَالنَّجْمِ ) والنجوم. وقال: ذهب إلى لفظ الواحد, وهو في المعنى الجميع, واستشهد لقوله ذلك بقول راعي الإبل: فَبَـاتَتْ تَعُـدُّ النَّجْـمَ فـي مُسـتَحيرَةٍ سَــريعٌ بِــأيْدي الآكـلِينَ جُمُودُهـا (1) والصواب من القول في ذلك عندي ما قاله مجاهد من أنه عنى بالنجم في هذا الموضع: الثريا, وذلك أن العرب تدعوها النجم, والقول الذي قاله من حكينا عنه من أهل البصرة قول لا نعلم أحدا من أهل التأويل قاله, وإن كان له وجه, فلذلك تركنا القول به. -------------------- الهوامش : (1) البيت لراعي الإبل النميري عبيد بن أيوب ( مجاز القرآن لأبي عبيدة الورقة 230 من المصورة 26059) قال عند قوله تعالى ( والنجم إذا هوى ) : قسم ، والنجم : النجوم ، ذهب إلى لفظ الواحد وهو في معنى الجمع ، قال راعي الإبل : " وباتت تعد النجم ... " البيت . وفي مستحيرة : في إهالة ، جعلها طافية ، لأنها من شحم . وقال ابن قتيبة في كتاب المعاني الكبير ، طبع الهند . وقال الراعي وذكر امرأة أضافها : فباتت ... البيت . مستحيرة : جفنة قد تحير فيها الدسم ، فهي ترى فيها النجوم لصفاء الإهالة ، وأراد بقوله تعد النجم : الثرياء ، والعرب تسمى الثريا النجم . قال : طلــــع النجــــم عشــــاء ابتغــــى الـــراعي كســـاء وقال التبريزي في شرح حماسة أبي تمام ( 4 : 39 ) قال أبو العلاء : كان بعض الناس يجعل " تعد " هنا من العدد ، أي أن هذه المرأة تعد النجم في الجفنة المستحيرة ، أي المملوءة ، لأنها ترى خيال النجوم فيها ، وقد يجوز هذا الوجه ، وقد يحتمل أن يكون " تعد " في معنى تحسب وتظن ، والمراد أن المرأة تحسب النجم في الجفنة ، لما تراه من بياض الشحم أ . هـ

There is a famous hadith about embroy in womb mentioning alaqa,mudgah and nutfa stage.Ref:bukhari 3208.Here in this hadith it states"إِنَّ أَحَدَكُمْ يُجْمَعُ خَلْقُهُ فِي بَطْنِ أُمِّهِ أَرْبَعِينَ يَوْمًا، " and translation is "Creation of each of you is put together in the womb for 40 days".I know some scholars say that alaqa,Mudgah and nutfa all happen in the 40 days it is not 120 days. Interpretation of 40 days is acurate according to modern science.But my question is how can we explain the Gathering of Creation in Womb for 40 days?what is actually gathered in the womb if we interpret the hadith in a way that all stages take place in the same 40 days not individually 40 days?

Asslam Alaikum. I am having doubts. So basically I saw a post on the internet. The internet said that the Prophet PBUH made a false prophecy with this Hadith: Sahih Muslim 2900 > Nafi' b. Utba reported: >We were with Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) in an expedition that there came a people to Allah's Apostle (ﷺ) from the direction of the west. They were dressed in woollen clothes and they stood near a hillock and they met him as Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) was sitting. I said to myself: Better go to them and stand between him and them that they may not attack him. Then I thought that perhaps there had been going on secret negotiation amongst them. I however, went to them and stood between them and him and I remember four of the words (on that occasion) which I repeat (on the fingers of my hand) that he (Allah's Messenger) said: You will attack Arabia and Allah will enable you to conquer it, then you would attack Persia and He would make you to conquer it. Then you would attack Rome and Allah will enable you to conquer it, then you would attack the Dajjal and Allah will enable you to conquer him. Nafi' said: Jabir, we thought that the Dajjal would appear after Rome (Syrian territory) would be conquered. So here now it says that the companions thought that Dajjal would come after the conquest of Roman Syria? But that didn't happen. Now I know it could be said this refers to the ends times but that post already knew people would say this and so he states the hadith which says that there will be No caeser after Heraclius in the Syrian territory and there will be no Khosrou in the Iraqi Territory. Then he presents another Hadith that the Last hour will not come until the Romans become the majority of people and he presents commentary of this Hadith saying that the Romans must be continuous. And he says this refers to the Byzantines during the time of Prophet Muhammad PBUH and as we know they don't exist anymore. He says and I quote: "Why this matters is because the Hadiths regarding the fall of Constantinople then cannot be understood to mean an event where the Roman Empire comes back. It also addresses the explanation I mentioned with the first Hadith, that the Dajjal is to come back at a later date that the Hadith doesn’t say he has to come back right after. If additional conditions for the Dajjal to return is the continuation of the Romans then that is problematic alongside these Hadith regarding Constantinople." Then he says that assuming that the hadith which states there will be no Caesar after this one refers to the Syrian territories and that the above Hadith refers to the dajjal coming in the future, not after the conquest of Syria, this directly contradicts another Hadith in Sahih muslim which states dajjal will come after roman Syria is conquered (Hadith is Sahih Muslim 2899a) and plus also the other Hadith that Romans will never rule Syria again. He says "For brevity there are Hadith regarding Constantinople that put the previous Hadith into perspective and create issues listed here: -https://sunnah.com/muslim:2920a -https://sunnah.com/muslim:2897 -https://sunnah.com/abudawud:4294 " He says that historical conquest of Constantinople refutes this prophecy? Any refutations?

As-salamu alaykum wa Rahmatullahi wa barakatoh. I came across a hadith which goes like this: > Sahih al-Bukhari 838 Narrated `Itban bin Malik: > > We prayed with the Prophet (ﷺ) and used to finish our prayer with the > Taslim along with him. And many people use this hadith as a evidence that doing the taslim with the imam is allowed and sunnah. Now my question is, how come scholars like Ibn Uthaymeen RH and others say that it is makrooh to say the taslim along with the imam when the companions did it themselves? Source: > Al-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said in al-Majmoo’ (3/464): > Al-Baghawi said: It is mustahabb not to start the salaam until the > imam has finished both taslims. This is the view of al-Shaafa’i > according to al-Buwayti, as was quoted by al-Baghawi. He said: Whoever > is (praying) behind an imam, when the imam has finished his salaam, he > should say salaam to his right and his left. End quote. > > Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) said in al-Sharh > al-Mumti’ (4/267): The scholars said: It is makrooh to say the first > and second taslim with your imam, but if you say the first taslim > after his first taslim and the second taslim after his second taslim, > there is nothing wrong with that, but it is better not to say the > taslim until after he has said both taslims. End quote. So how came those Great scholars say that it is mustahab not to say the taslim with the imam, and that it is makrooh when it was a practice by the sahaba? JazakAllahu Khayran.

As we know Dajjal will come from Khorasan. Chapter: The tribulation of Dajjal, the emergence of 'Esa bin Maryam and the emergence of Gog and Magog, Sunan Ibn Majah and he will be followed by 70,000 jews from Ispahan Chapter: The Rest Of The Ahadith About Ad-Dajjal, Sahih Muslim . But according to history, Assyrian's exiled the people of Kingdom of Israel which are 10 Lost tribes(Asher, Dan, Ephraim, Gad, Issachar, Manasseh, Naphtali, Reuben, Simeon, and Zebulun). Jews are expecting their king messiah from the progeny of David(PBUH) and the tribe of david was Judah from the southern kingdom of Judah(Which includes the tribes Judah and Benjamin). If dajjal come from area near Khorasan then he must be from the 10 tribes and historically the persian jews are not from the tribes of Judah The “Persian” Period . How the islamic theologians and scholars explain this dillema? I am studying the comparative theology for last 2 years. Can someone help me in this particular matters?

وقال ابن أبي حاتم : حدثنا أحمد بن سنان ، حدثنا أبو معاوية عن الأعمش ، عن خيثمة قال : قال عبد الله يعني : ابن مسعود إن النطفة إذا وقعت في الرحم ، طارت في كل شعر وظفر ، فتمكث أربعين يوما ، ثم تتحدر في الرحم فتكون علقة . What is the authenticity of this hadith mentioned in Tafsir ibn Kathir in Sura 23 ayat 14 . Probably it is Against observation.Help me kindly

In the first it says > SAHIH MUSLIM BOOK 41, HADITH NUMBER 7005. Chapter : Account of the > Dajjal and his features and what would be along with. > > Ibn Umar reported that Allah’s Messenger (may peace be upon him). made > a mention of Dajjil in the presence of the people and said: Allah is > not one-eyed and behold that Dajjal is blind of the **right** eye and his > eye would be like a floating grape > > https://sunnah.com/muslim:169e But the second haidth it says: > SAHIH MUSLIM BOOK 41, HADITH NUMBER 7010. > > Chapter : Account of the Dajjal and his features and what would be > along with. > > Hudhaifa reported that Allah’s Messenger (may peace be upon him) said: > Dajjal is blind of **left** eye with thick hair and there would be a > garden and fire with him and his fire would be a garden and his garden > would be fire. Which one is correct I'm confused and isn't this an > contradiction? > > https://sunnah.com/muslim:2934a

So I was reading this article , and I read these 2 ahadith in it. and it goes like this, > Allah created some people for hell and some people for paradise. My initial understanding of this hadith was that, as people live out their lives. The people who do good will goto heaven and people who do bad will goto hell, both groups of people are given free will. So it is very fair and I dont have any issue with it. but then this next hadith confuses me, > Each one of you will find it easy to do what he was created for. This above hadith makes it sound very unfair to me, for example lets say I was created for hell that means God created a **tendency** in me to commit sins and made it harder for me to do good deeds. While the people God chose for heaven, he made a **tendency** in them to do good deeds and made it hard for them to commit sins. So this kind of negates the whole **free will** thing. It basically means that God has chosen favourites and the system is **rigged** as the chances of person created for Hell commiting sins **by design** is higher than the chances for person created for Heaven to commit sins. Also can be intrepreted as not all humans were created equal, as it is unfair towards the person created for Hell, as God literally made it easier for him to commit sins at no fault of his. I am a Muslim and I believe in Allah and his Prophet (PBUH) and this hadith could be weak or I am misinterpreting it, so please if anybody knows, can you please clarify for me. Thank you

Assalamualaikum There is an authentic hadith in Sunan an-Nasa'i 3221 >Narrated 'Abdullah bin Buraidah: It was narrated from 'Abdullah bin Buraidah that his father said: "Abu Bakr and 'Umar, may Allah be pleased with them, proposed marriage to Fatimah but the Messenger of Allah said: 'She is young.' Then 'Ali proposed marriage to her and he married her to him." Some people use this hadith to criticize the Prophet’s ﷺ own marriage to Aisha (may Allah be pleased with her), claiming a contradiction: Why did the Prophet ﷺ reject Abu Bakr and Umar’s proposals due to Fatimah’s young age, yet he himself married Aisha at a young age

> حَدَّثَنَا عُبَيْدُ اللَّهِ بْنُ مُوسَى، أَخْبَرَنَا حَنْظَلَةُ، عَنْ > سَالِمٍ، عَنِ ابْنِ عُمَرَ ـ رضى الله عنهما ـ عَنِ النَّبِيِّ صلى الله > عليه وسلم قَالَ ‏ "‏ لأَنْ يَمْتَلِئَ جَوْفُ أَحَدِكُمْ قَيْحًا خَيْرٌ > لَهُ مِنْ أَنْ يَمْتَلِئَ شِعْرًا ‏"‏‏.‏ > > Narrated Ibn `Umar: The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "It is better for a man to > fill the inside of his body with pus than to fill it with poetry." > > Sahih al-Bukhari 6154 https://sunnah.com/bukhari:6154
How is this Hadith interpreted? Is poetry haram?

Bukhari 2645a says that after 42 nights bones and flesh are created. In 23:14, the Quran says the blood clot and lump of flesh stage are before the bones stage. This would mean that the blood clot and lump of flesh stage are before 42 days. Bukhari 3332 says: “Every one of you is collected in the womb of his mother for the first forty days, and then he becomes a clot for another forty days, and then a piece of flesh for another forty days.” إِنَّ أَحَدَكُمْ يُجْمَعُ فِي بَطْنِ أُمِّهِ أَرْبَعِينَ يَوْمًا، ثُمَّ يَكُونُ عَلَقَةً مِثْلَ ذَلِكَ، ثُمَّ يَكُونُ مُضْغَةً مِثْلَ ذَلِكَ، The translation makes it seem like the piece of flesh stage is between 80 and 120 days, seemingly contradicting the previous conclusion. However, the translation is apparently not entirely literal, as it says ‘40 days’ three times while “أَرْبَعِينَ يَوْمًا،” only appears in the hadith once. Instead, there are the words ‘مِثْلَ ذَلِكَ’. On pages 525-526 in a Quran Dictionary (https://archive.org/details/dictionary-2018/page/526/mode/1up?q=Same&view=theater) one of the meanings of مِثْلَ is “the same as”. ذَلِكَ means “that”. Therefore it would mean “the same as that [period]”. This alternative translation would read: “Every one of you is collected in the womb of his mother for the first forty days, and then he becomes a clot in the same as that [period], and then a piece of flesh in the same as that [period]” As I am not proficient in Arabic, I cannot be certain that this is a valid translation. Is this a valid translation or is there a different explanation for this problem?

What does this hadith mean? > Allah's apostle said," By Him in Whose Hand is my life, if you were not to commit sin, Allah would sweep you out of existence and He would replace (you by) those people who would commit sin and seek forgiveness from Allah, and He would have pardoned them." > — [Sahih Muslim](http://sunnah.com/muslim/50/13) We are also taught in Islam that doing sin is wrong but this hadith says that if you dont commit sin, you will be replaced by people who commit sins and ask forgiveness? What does this hadith mean?

Can someone shed some context on this hadith? What is meant by a "kick in the womb": > It was narrated from Aisha that Umm Habibah bint Jahsh who was married > to ‘Abdur-Rahman bin ‘Awf suffered from Istihadah (non-mentrual > vaginal bleeding) and did not become pure. Her situation was mentioned > to the Messenger of Allah and he said: ‘That is not menstruation, > rather it is a kick in the womb, so let her work out the length of the > menses that she used to have, and stop praying, then after that let > her perform Ghusl for every prayer.'” > >

There is a tradition from Sahih Bukhari, Book 65, Hadith 4879 > **حَدَّثَنَا خَالِدُ بْنُ مَخْلَدٍ، حَدَّثَنَا سُلَيْمَانُ، قَالَ حَدَّثَنِي مُعَاوِيَةُ بْنُ أَبِي مُزَرَّدٍ، عَنْ سَعِيدِ بْنِ > يَسَارٍ، عَنْ أَبِي هُرَيْرَةَ ـ رضى الله عنه ـ عَنِ النَّبِيِّ صلى > الله عليه وسلم قَالَ ‏"‏ خَلَقَ اللَّهُ الْخَلْقَ، فَلَمَّا فَرَغَ > مِنْهُ قَامَتِ الرَّحِمُ فَأَخَذَتْ بِحَقْوِ الرَّحْمَنِ فَقَالَ لَهَا > مَهْ‏.‏ قَالَتْ هَذَا مَقَامُ الْعَائِذِ بِكَ مِنَ الْقَطِيعَةِ‏.‏ > قَالَ أَلاَ تَرْضَيْنَ أَنْ أَصِلَ مَنْ وَصَلَكِ وَأَقْطَعَ مَنْ > قَطَعَكِ‏.‏ قَالَتْ بَلَى يَا رَبِّ‏.‏ قَالَ فَذَاكِ لَكِ ‏"‏‏.‏ قَالَ > أَبُو هُرَيْرَةَ اقْرَءُوا إِنْ شِئْتُمْ ‏{‏فهَلْ عَسَيْتُمْ إِنْ > تَوَلَّيْتُمْ أَنْ تُفْسِدُوا فِي الأَرْضِ وَتُقَطِّعُوا > أَرْحَامَكُمْ‏}** > > > The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "Allah created His creation, and when He was > done with it, the womb, got up and **caught hold of the Merciful's > loin (or loincloth?)** Allah said, "What is the matter?' On that, it said, 'I seek refuge with you from those who sever the ties of Kith and kin.' > On that Allah said, 'Will you be satisfied if I bestow My favors on > him who keeps your ties, and withhold My favors from him who severs > your ties?' On that it said, 'Yes, O my Lord!' Then Allah said, 'That > is for you.' " Abu Huraira added: If you wish, you can recite: "Would > you then if you were given the authority. do mischief in the land and > sever your ties of kinship. (47. 22) ‏ According to *Almaany Online Arabic Dictionary* the Arabic word "حَقو", [means](http://www.almaany.com/home.php?language=arabic&word=%D8%AD%D9%82%D9%88&lang_name=English&type_word=0&dspl=0) 'groin' and 'loin'. *Google Translate* (which admittedly doesn't have a scholarly-authored glossary but one that reflects languages as commonly used by internet users) [returns](https://translate.google.com/#ar/en/%D8%AD%D9%8E%D9%82%D9%88) 'waist' and 'loin'. I also looked up the word "الحقو" in an Arabic Dictionary (?) and this was the definition: > الحقو- بفتح المهملة و سكون القاف-: موضع شد الإزار، و هو الخاصرة، ثم توسعوا حتى سموا الإزار الذي يشد على العورة" حقوا" و الجمع" أحق" و" > حقي" مثل فلس و أفلس و فلوس، و قد يجمع على" حقاء" كسهام. > >is the place where the loincloth is fasten which is waist, then they extended it to name the loincloth itself ... But in the translation offered by [Sunnah.com](http://sunnah.com/urn/45090) , it seems that the word 'حقو' is entirely ignored which could be an indication that their translation is not literal but interpretive, i.e. how this particular translator understands and interprets the hadith. But since a physical part or object is attributed to Allah in the original Arabic version of the hadith, what does it mean? Does it meant that Allah have indeed physical parts or belongings, or else?

Is there any strong reference about imam amash being shia or if not the what then prove it with refrence with writing arabic text for refrence book

I watched tarot reading videos as it is recommended on my yt feed I watched it but I didn't knew that watching it is considered as shirk will my prayers not be accepted for 40 days

So, I saw this [Fatwa](https://islamqa.info/en/answers/88353/what-is-the-reward-for-spouses-treating-one-another-kindly) on islamqa and it quoted a Hadith. This part of the Hadith says: > Shall I not tell you about your women in Paradise?” We said: Yes, O Messenger of Allah. He said: “The loving and fertile one who, if she gets angry or is mistreated or her husband gets angry says, ‘Here is my hand in your hand, I shall not sleep until you are pleased.’” As far as the authenticity of the Hadith goes, the article says: > It was also narrated from a number of other Sahabah, hence it was classed as hasan by al-Albani in al-Silsilah al-Saheehah (3380) and in Saheeh al-Targheeb (1942). Does this mean that women have to tolerate mistreatment and abuse from their husbands? And what if a woman is not fertile? Isn’t she deserving of Paradise because Allah has made the fertile women superior?