Bukhari 3330 The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "But for the Israelis, meat would not decay and but for Eve, wives would never betray their husbands." I'm looking for an answer to the second part of the hadith, someone told me (I don't think he gave a source though) that eve was tricked by Iblees first and then she told Adam and they both ate, but then I find this guy saying Adam was tempted first, but I don't see a source which would be nice https://islam.stackexchange.com/a/43638/122603

A hadith in Bukhari states that Ibn Abbas was 10 years old when the Prophet died: >وقال ابن عباس توفي رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم وأنا ابن عشر سنين وقد قرأت المحكم > > Ibn Abbas said, "Allah's Apostle died when I was a boy of ten years, and I had learnt the Muhkam (of the Qur'an). > > — [Bukhari](https://sunnah.com/bukhari:5035 ) However he is generally accepted to have been 13 years old. On what basis was the age of 13 determined? Isn't the information in Bukhari more reliable?

There is a report from Saeed bin ibn al-Musayyub in Malik's Muwatta that states the following:- > Yahya related to me from Malik from Yahya ibn Said that Said ibn > al-Musayyub said, **"Ibrahim, may Allah bless him and grant him peace, > was the first to give hospitality to the guest and the first person to > be circumcised and the first person to trim the moustache and the > first person to see grey hair.** He said, 'O Lord! What is this?' > Allah the Blessed, the Exalted, said, 'It is dignity, Ibrahim.' He > said, 'Lord, increase me in dignity!' " > > Yahya said that he had heard Malik say, "One takes from the moustache > until the edge of the lip appears, that is the rim. One does not cut > if off completely so that one mutilates oneself." - [Muwatta Malik, Book > 49, Hadith 1677](https://sunnah.com/urn/516560) **Can someone please explain me the highlighted part of this narration?**

I have started to believe that Hellfire is going to end after thousands and thousands of years based on following report. ʿAbd ibn Humayd, who is among the most esteemed scholars of hadith, narrated in his well-known tafsir: He said: Sulaiman ibn Harb narrated to us, Hammad ibn Salamah narrated to us, from Thabit, from al-Hasan al-Basri, who said: ʿUmar said, __**“If the people of the Fire were to remain in the Fire for a period equal to the sand of ʿAlij, there would still be a day when they are brought out.”**__ Source: Al-Radd ʿalā man qāla bifanāʾ al-jannah wa al-nār Ibn Taymiyyah Pg 49-55 My question is what happens to disbeliving jinn and men who exit hellfire. Do they enter lowest levels of jannah as per some opinions or do they enter araf, the place between jannah and jahannum.

> Hadith "وعن أبي أمامة رضي الله عنه أن رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم > قال‏:‏ ‏"‏فضل العالم على العابد كفضلي على أدناكم‏"‏ ثم قال رسول الله > صلى الله عليه وسلم ‏:‏ ‏"‏إن الله وملائكته وأهل السماوات والأرض حتى > النملة في جحرها وحتى الحوت ليصلون على معلمي الناس الخير‏"‏ ‏(‏‏(‏رواه > الترمذي وقال‏:‏ حديث حسن‏.‏ ‏)‏‏)‏‏.‏" Abu Umamah (May Allah be > pleased with him) reported: The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) said, "The > superiority of the learned over the devout worshipper is like my > superiority over the most inferior amongst you (in good deeds)." He > went on to say, "Allah, His angels, the dwellers of the heaven and the > earth, and even the ant in its hole and the fish (in water) supplicate > in favour of those who teach people knowledge." > > [At-Tirmidhi 2685]. > > > > Riyad as-Salihin, 1387 In the end of the Hadith "**those who teach people knowledge**" is it referring to anyone who teaches people knowledge or A scholar from the context before. If it is referring to the scholar then who are the scholars according to this Hadith? Is it just someone who has knowledge about Deen or someone who is like a formal scholar as we understand today?

It is narrated in Ibn Ishaq 992: > اغزوا جميعا في سبيل الله، فقاتلوا من كفر بالله > >“fight everyone in the way of allah and kill those who disbelieve in allah“ I know Ibn Ishaq is generally a weak source, however I'd like to know just how weak this is. Does it reach the level of fabrication for example? Likewise, what is the context of the situation? If this is a general narration applicable for everyone, does it not contradict the fact we are only supposed to kill non-combatants and ask for Jizya beforehand?

Looking for an explanation for these 2 Sunni Hadiths in conjuction. - [ Whoever makes the Prophet's (PBUH) daughter mad makes him (PBUH) mad](https://sunnah.com/bukhari:3714) - [Abu Bakr made Fatima (SA) mad at Fadak](https://sunnah.com/bukhari:4240) Why does it not logically follow that Abu Bakr made the Prophet (PBUH) mad?

وقال ابن أبي حاتم : حدثنا أحمد بن سنان ، حدثنا أبو معاوية عن الأعمش ، عن خيثمة قال : قال عبد الله يعني : ابن مسعود إن النطفة إذا وقعت في الرحم ، طارت في كل شعر وظفر ، فتمكث أربعين يوما ، ثم تتحدر في الرحم فتكون علقة . What is the authenticity of this hadith mentioned in Tafsir ibn Kathir in Sura 23 ayat 14 . Probably it is Against observation.Help me kindly

Sahih Al-Bukhari 3508: The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "If somebody claims to be the son of any other than his real father knowingly, he but disbelieves in Allah, and if somebody claims to belong to some folk to whom he does not belong, let such a person take his place in the (Hell) Fire." My question is about second part of hadith.How you define folk or tribe? Here in indo-pak , caste system exists which is not found in Arabia. And most of people in Pakistan belonging to low caste convetred to some higher caste for social superiority as low caste are still humiliated a lot. Here caste are associated with their professions. Like merchants are called Sheikh, farmers are Arain, hair dresser are Malik, clothes maker Ansari, and hence Butt, Rajpoot , Jutt and etc.These are just few examples . But they all are convetred to Islam from Hinduism . And it's all not sure for many of people that so called superior caste people have been converted from low caste some 50 , 60 or 100 years ago from their ancestors. Now my question is simple, if anyone change its caste, does second part of a above Hadiths has any resemblance to this situation. As in Hadiths, word "qoum" is used which means folk , nationalism or tribe. But no any meaning of caste or profession make sense. My English is much poor. So kindly understand my point of view and answer me in simple wiring.

Are the Hadiths that say that Aisha (RA), along with the other woman, started hitting her face in grief when Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) passed away authentic? > مات رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم بين سحري، ونحري وفي دولتي، لم أظلم فيه أحدا، فمن سفهي وحداثة سني أن رسول الله قبض وهو في حجري، ثم وضعت رأسه على وسادة، وقمت ألتدم مع النساء، وأضرب وجهي > >They have recounted that ‘A’ishah said, > >The Messenger of Allah (may Allah bless him and give him peace) passed away leaning against my chest. I did not wrong anyone regarding him. It was from my weakness and the youth of my age that the Messenger of Allah was taken whilst in my lap, then I placed his head on a pillow and stood hitting myself along with the women and hitting my face. > > — [Musnad Ahmad](https://shamela.ws/book/25794/22057) - (translation from [seekersguidance.org](https://seekersguidance.org/answers/adab/how-do-we-understand-the-reaction-of-our-mother-aisha-when-the-prophet-may-allah-bless-him-and-give-him-peace-passed-away/)) and if so, how should we interpret these narrations, given that Islam prohibits such displays of mourning? I have also heard that the prohibition applies to making such actions a habitual or deliberate practice, while instinctive reactions due to overwhelming grief may not be considered sinful. Is this true?

> Narrated 'Abdullah bin 'Umar: > > > "During the lifetime of Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) men and women used to perform ablution together." (Sahih al-Bukhari 193 )

Sahih Al-Bukhari 3508: The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "If somebody claims to be the son of any other than his real father knowingly, he but disbelieves in Allah, and if somebody claims to belong to some folk to whom he does not belong, let such a person take his place in the (Hell) Fire." I find the second part problematic: *"and if somebody claims to belong to some folk to whom he does not belong, let such a person take his place in the (Hell) Fire."* In the Qur'an Kerim, it states clearly: **"Indeed, We have dignified the children of Adam, carried them on land and sea, granted them good and lawful provisions, and privileged them far above many of Our creatures."** Qur'an Kerim 17:70 Further a hadith confirms this: *“Verily, **Allah has removed from you the pride of the time of ignorance, with its boasting of ancestors,** for one can only be a righteous believer or a miserable evildoer. All of the people are the children of Adam, and Adam was created from dust.”* - Source: Sunan al-Tirmidhī 3955 (Grade: Sahih (authentic) according to Al-Albani.) According to this Qur'an Kerim Ayah and the Al-Tirmidhi hadith: You, me, all of us are Children of The Prophet Adam SAWS or 'Children of Adam' which means: I can clearly claim to be of any ethnicity: Arab, Chinese, Kurdish, Turkish, European, Malawi etc. because **we are all One Tribe.** And who knows except Allah SWT who was yours or mine ancestor millennia ago. Also, there is a reason that all of us, Muslims and all others are called Brothers and Sisters in Humanity for a reason. Most probably our ethnicities changed through ancestry and time. So, *"and if somebody claims to belong to some folk to whom he does not belong, let such a person take his place in the (Hell) Fire."* This part of that first hadith seems problematic since it clearly contradicts Qur'an Honourable in this aspect. And rejecting Qur'an Kerim is also an Act of Kufr. Since I'm kind of puzzled with this, could you resolve this question for me. Thanks and Selam,

> Narrated Abu Huraira: The Verse:--"You (true Muslims) are the best of peoples ever raised up for mankind." means, the best of peoples for the people, as you bring them with chains on their necks till they embrace Islam. (Sahih Al-Bukhati, Book 60, hadith 80 ) Could anyone provide me with the interpretation of this hadith. What does it mean by "chains on their necks"?

There is a famous hadith about embroy in womb mentioning alaqa,mudgah and nutfa stage.Ref:bukhari 3208.Here in this hadith it states"إِنَّ أَحَدَكُمْ يُجْمَعُ خَلْقُهُ فِي بَطْنِ أُمِّهِ أَرْبَعِينَ يَوْمًا، " and translation is "Creation of each of you is put together in the womb for 40 days".I know some scholars say that alaqa,Mudgah and nutfa all happen in the 40 days it is not 120 days. Interpretation of 40 days is acurate according to modern science.But my question is how can we explain the Gathering of Creation in Womb for 40 days?what is actually gathered in the womb if we interpret the hadith in a way that all stages take place in the same 40 days not individually 40 days?

My father in law promised me to pay me 5000 for a particular payment if i will clear the debt the debt is clear at the end of bearers and i spend nominal amount .can i still take money from him If the task is completed but the money is no more supposed to pay?

>بِسـمِ اللهِ الذي لا يَضُـرُّ مَعَ اسمِـهِ شَيءٌ في الأرْضِ وَلا في السّمـاءِوَهـوَ السّمـيعُ العَلـيم >In the Name of Allah, Who with His Name nothing can cause harm in the earth nor in the heavens, and He is the All-Hearing, the All-Knowing. I was wondering why you have to recite it 3 times in the morning and 3 times in the evening. Will there be a conflict of interest when you recite others dua that promise the same at the same time in the day? It has been widely regarded as an authentic hadith by the sources I have mentioned above. Thank you highly in advance.

Can someone explain what this hadith means: > عن سهل بن سعد، قال قال رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم ‏ "‏ لو كانت الدنيا تعدل عند الله جناح بعوضة ما سقى كافرا منها شربة ماء > >Sahl bin Sa'd narrated that the Messenger of Allah (s.a.w) said: "If the world to Allah was equal to a mosquito's wing, then He would not allow the disbeliever to have a sip of water from it." > > — [Jami at-Tirmidhi](https://sunnah.com/tirmidhi:2320)

So I was reading this article , and I read these 2 ahadith in it. and it goes like this, > Allah created some people for hell and some people for paradise. My initial understanding of this hadith was that, as people live out their lives. The people who do good will goto heaven and people who do bad will goto hell, both groups of people are given free will. So it is very fair and I dont have any issue with it. but then this next hadith confuses me, > Each one of you will find it easy to do what he was created for. This above hadith makes it sound very unfair to me, for example lets say I was created for hell that means God created a **tendency** in me to commit sins and made it harder for me to do good deeds. While the people God chose for heaven, he made a **tendency** in them to do good deeds and made it hard for them to commit sins. So this kind of negates the whole **free will** thing. It basically means that God has chosen favourites and the system is **rigged** as the chances of person created for Hell commiting sins **by design** is higher than the chances for person created for Heaven to commit sins. Also can be intrepreted as not all humans were created equal, as it is unfair towards the person created for Hell, as God literally made it easier for him to commit sins at no fault of his. I am a Muslim and I believe in Allah and his Prophet (PBUH) and this hadith could be weak or I am misinterpreting it, so please if anybody knows, can you please clarify for me. Thank you

Can someone shed some context on this hadith? What is meant by a "kick in the womb": > It was narrated from Aisha that Umm Habibah bint Jahsh who was married > to ‘Abdur-Rahman bin ‘Awf suffered from Istihadah (non-mentrual > vaginal bleeding) and did not become pure. Her situation was mentioned > to the Messenger of Allah and he said: ‘That is not menstruation, > rather it is a kick in the womb, so let her work out the length of the > menses that she used to have, and stop praying, then after that let > her perform Ghusl for every prayer.'” > >

So I always heard and even in Islamqa it said > The basic ruling is that one should drink while sitting, which is > better, but one may drink while standing. The Prophet did both to > demonstrate that there is a lot of room for manoeuvre in this matter. However I find this hadith to be very strong in words. If it's just a prefered thing why would the prophet tell us to vomit? And I haven't found anyone really explain this hadith. > حَدَّثَنِي عَبْدُ الْجَبَّارِ بْنُ الْعَلاَءِ، حَدَّثَنَا مَرْوَانُ، - > يَعْنِي الْفَزَارِيَّ - حَدَّثَنَا عُمَرُ بْنُ، حَمْزَةَ أَخْبَرَنِي > أَبُو غَطَفَانَ الْمُرِّيُّ، أَنَّهُ سَمِعَ أَبَا هُرَيْرَةَ، يَقُولُ > قَالَ رَسُولُ اللَّهِ صلى الله عليه وسلم ‏ "‏ لاَ يَشْرَبَنَّ أَحَدٌ > مِنْكُمْ قَائِمًا فَمَنْ نَسِيَ فَلْيَسْتَقِئْ ‏"‏ ‏.‏ > > Abu Huraira reported Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) as saying: None of you > should drink while standing; and if anyone forgets, he must vomit. Sahih Muslim 2026