This hadith from tirmidhi says - > Abu Sa'eed narrated: "On the Day of Badr, the Romans had a victory > over the Persians. So the believers were pleased with that, then the > following was revealed: 'Alif Lam Mim. The Romans have been defeated, > up to His saying: 'the believers will rejoice - with the help of > Allah... (30:1-5)'" He said: "So the believers were happy with the > victory of the Romans over the Persians." From the wording, it sounds like it was revealed on the day Romans were victorious.

What is the universal criteria to separate words in Arabic of Quran? My computer program uses "empty space character" to separate words and count them. Is that "always" correct rule for this? For example is this "va huva" one word or two words in 9:129? وَهُوَ

I actually have 3 questions. They are:- - First question: What is the meaning of the word سماء in the context of the Qur'an? - Second question: Can the word سماوات be used as a replacement for the word سماء ? - What are the difference between the words سماء and السماء الدنيا? If there's any problem in my question please inform me. Thanks!

 I am wondering if i need wudu to read this quran as it is mostly english but still has a little quranic surahs in there. I also have another question, if i make dua, does it have to been like a surah from the quran or can i simply ask things like “O Allah please help me with my test tomorrow” etc. All the surahs as you can see are in english only translation, however at the beginning of the book you can still see there is some Arabic. I must mention that it states it can be also used for dawah purposes. Therefore would i need wudu or not?

In Quran it says " no bearer of burdens will bear the burden of another". Who is " bearer of burdens" adressing to? Is it only humans or other creatures too?

I want to know how the Arabic language explains this verse Surah Isra verse 1 "Glory be to the One Who took His servant ˹Muḥammad˺ by night from the Sacred Mosque to the Farthest Mosque whose surroundings We have blessed, so that We may show him some of Our signs. Indeed, He alone is the All-Hearing, All-Seeing." Initially Allah swt refers to himself in the third person (glory be to the one who-) and then later refers to himself as We (the royal we in English) which switches to first person and then later addresses himself again in the third person saying "he is the all hearing" , Can anyone who speaks arabic explain this because in English it would be odd. The simplest conclusion would be to assume that in "we may show **him** -" and "indeed **he** is the all hearing" both are referring to same person , can someone explain why this is not the case

Some explanatory books, such as Nayl al-Awtar by Imam al-Shawkani, Mirqat al-Mafatih by al-Mulla Ali al-Qari, and the explanation of al-Mishkat by al-Tibi, have interpreted the hadith of Safiyyah (radi Allahu 'anha), when she said that the Prophet (salla Allahu 'alayhi wa sallam) "bana biha", to mean that he built a new tent because of her or with her. Is it valid to interpret the hadith of Aisha (radi Allahu 'anha): "bana bi Rasul Allah", to mean that he built a tent because of her or with her? My question is: is this interpretation acceptable from the perspective of the Arabic language?

Why Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala did not call our prophet (Sallallahu Alaihi wa Sallam) like "Ya Muhammad!..." in the Holy book Quranul Karim? Is it okay to address with this if anything Allah Subhanahu wa Ta'ala told addressing our prophet? Example: وَأْمُرْ أَهْلَكَ بِالصَّلَاةِ وَاصْطَبِرْ عَلَيْهَا لَا نَسْأَلُكَ رِزْقًا نَّحْنُ نَرْزُقُكَ وَالْعَاقِبَةُ لِلتَّقْوَى Is it okay to translate like: "And (**Hey Muhammad Sallallhu Alaihi wa Sallam!**) enjoin prayer upon your family [and people] and be steadfast therein. We ask you not for provision; We provide for you, and the [best] outcome is for [those of] righteousness."(20:132) The Imam of our local mosque said, "Allah subhanahu wa ta'la never called Rasulullah Sallallahu Alaihi wa Sallam with his name, because, calling by one's name is not that respectful. So, Allah subhanahu wa ta'ala avoided it. But used in case of other prophet so that people could understand the respect of our prophet (pbuh). So, translating like this is not permissible."

Selamun Aleykum, I heard there is no single word or even single phrase to adequately translate **taqwa** into English. This is the reason for inaccuracies in this meaning for Quranic translations. I heard it takes 3 sentences minimum to describe taqwa. Please indicate if the following is correct. My son asked so it is important that it is. 1. To worship Allah only and obey all of Allah's requirements for Islam as shown by our prophet (pbuh). 2. To abstain from anything that is Haram. 3. To abstain from anything that is makru (questionable )

Salamun aleikum, I know that there were a meeting with God, before we were on this earth, testifying that only Allah is our God. My question is on this verse. > „They will say, "Our Lord, You made us lifeless twice and gave us life twice, and we have confessed our sins. So is there to an exit any way?"“ (Ghafir, Verse 11, Saheeh International) This verse says we died twice and were given life twice. So we died after this meeting, which I mentioned above, then our mother gave birth, so we are living, but we will die one day and at the end on the Day of Resseruction, we are raised again to life. It would be two and two. But before that meeting, were we not also raised to life, making it three „lifes“ and two „deaths“. Or is there no death between the meeting and our birth, but then it would be one „death“. It would be great, if someone clarifies. Thanks for answers.

I was trying to sleep at night and thinking about something and these came to my mind. There are ayats that talk about life, one ayat if I remember correctly, it says life is a joke and amusement https://quran.com/6/32 . Other ayat talks about life has a purpose and a test to see who is the best in deed https://quran.com/29/2 . My understandings about those 2 ayats : 1. The test should be serious and not a joke or even amusement. Why do these ayats contradict each other ? 2. After reading deeper and understanding the whole context of one ayat https://quran.com/6/32 , of course this world is different if we compare it to the next life. And it is far better for those who are “taqwa” in this world. One of the taqwa definitions can be found on https://quran.com/29/2 which says who believe in one God and will be tested and whoever passes they are “taqwa” which will be granted the better of the next life. If I go with my understanding in this case I can see these two ayats have distinction. If you could share your point of view regarding these two ayats and even share their own understanding I’ll be really grateful. But to focus about this QnA forum I think I’m going to ask about my first understanding here, Why do these two ayats contradict each other ?

Assalamualaikum, How do we explain that the ayats 4-9 in Surah Najm are about Jibreel (as) and then ayat 10 is Allah speaking? I know there is a Hadith of Aisha (ra) saying so but, there is also Hadith from Ibn Abbas (ra) saying ayat 5-10 are about Allah. How would we know from the Arabic of the Quran that 5-9 are about Jibreel and 10 is Allah speaking?

In Quran it is mentioned that the bones are covered with muscles in early stage.But in Quran is it flesh(لحم) not muscle(عضلة).Is flesh and muscle in Arabic same or different?Is flesh comprehensive in this case?

Assalamu 'Alaikum dear brothers and sisters A Christian recently argued with me by quoting Al Ahqaf:30 that Prophet (S) had the Original Thaurath in his hands. Here is what he said: > "Let me give you some more proof that the Torah at the time of > Mohammed was the truth, acording to your Prophet. Take for example > Surah Al-Ahqaf verse 30, in your major translations by Muslims. > Take the translation by Abdullah Yusuf Ali. It says: "They said, "O > our people, we have heard a book revealed after Moses, confirming what > came before it; it guides (men) to the truth and to a straight path." > Look at the words highlighted above that say "before it." In the > Arabic the words are not "before it." Let's do a word for word > translation, and I leave it to the Arabic reader to be honest to > himself when he reading this word for word translation: Arabic: kaloo > ya kawmana inna sami'ina kitaban unzila ba'd Musa English: they said > O our people we have heard a book revealed after Moses Arabic: > Musadekan Lima Bayna Yadayehe English: confirming what is between his > hands Arabic: Yahdee ela al-hak wa-ela tareekin mustakeem English: > it guides to the truth and to a straight path My point is the un > corrupted BIBLE was in their hands at the time of Mohammed. Where is > the uncorrupted copy of the BIBLE. Why is it that we have copies of > the BIBLE from the &th century and copies from the 4th 3nd the 2nd and > we also have copies from the 10th 12 th an up to today and all say the > same thing. all come from the same manuscripts in Hebrew, Greek and > Aramaic. So I dont have a clue what youare talking about. you are just > repeating what you have been told. I suggest you go study your own > religion first before you comment on a religion you dont know anything > about." I replied like this: > "Here is the right translation. Of Ahqaf:30 > > {They said, "O our people! We have heard a Book revealed after Moses, > confirmation for what is before it: it guides to the Truth and to > Straight Path. } > One thing you said is right.The word-by-word > translation says “What is between its hands”.It is an Arabic idiom for > saying 'In front of' or 'before'.See Al Baqara 66 for Example. > Now you > have quoted Ahqaf:30 and stated that Original Thourath existed at the > time of Prophet Muhammed (S). > My question:Where does it say that > 'Thaurath exist in its original form'? Nowhere.It just says that > Qur'an conforms the Thaurath.It says about the Thaurath,which is > already corrupted. How can you know that the manuscripts you > said,which belongs to 2nd,3rd,4th centuries,etc are not corrupted? > Just have a check at the Great Isaiah Scroll: > http://www.answering-christianity.com/topic_1996.htm " He said: > "You getting your information from answeringchristianuty.com no wonder > you are confused. This guy Osama Abdullah fabricated emails, then had > to admit and apologize. This is your source of information a confessed > liar. A man whi CHRISTIAN PRINCE destroyed in every debate. Wow you > are really lost. Seeing that you cannot read either Arabic or English. > The verse says BETWEEN HIS HANDS that sir means the prophet had the > uncorrupted copy in his hands. The words translated as BEFORE IT > doesnot mean that it is a deception the proper translation of BAYNA > YADAYEHE. Is BETWEEN HIS HANDS. Your lieing schollar neglected to tell > you what the arabic really says. My next question would be, WHY WOULD > YOU HAVE TO LIE TO PROVE THE BOOK OF UTHMAN TO BE TRUE?." As you see,he didn't accept what I said: "The word-by-word translation says "What is between its hands".It is an Arabic idiom for saying 'In front of' or 'before'.See Al Baqara 66 for Example." In Holy Qur'an 2:65-66 Allah says: > بِسْمِ اللَّهِ الرَّحْمَـٰنِ الرَّحِيمِ > > { وَلَقَدْ عَلِمْتُمُ الَّذِينَ اعْتَدَوْا مِنكُمْ فِي السَّبْتِ > فَقُلْنَا لَهُمْ كُونُوا قِرَدَةً خَاسِئِينَ > > And you had already known about those who transgressed among you > concerning the sabbath, and We said to them, "Be monkeys, despised." > > فَجَعَلْنَاهَا نَكَالًا لِّمَا بَيْنَ يَدَيْهَا وَمَا خَلْفَهَا > وَمَوْعِظَةً لِّلْمُتَّقِينَ >And We made it a deterrent punishment > for those who were present and those who succeeded [them] and a lesson > for those who fear Allah. } The verse 66 says “Bayna Yadayha” which means 'between her hands'.But it is absurd to translate it like that. Similarly, there are other verses like: > {And it is He who sends the winds as good tidings before His mercy, > and We send down from the sky pure water}(Holy Qur'an 25:48) Now,before replying to that Kafir,I just want to conform my point: In Arabic,'Between the hands' means means 'before' and 'in front of'.It is an idiom or figurative speech. I need conformation for that Please say if I am right or wrong. _____ ### EDIT ### P.S: Our debate was of course about the preservation the Bible/Thaurath/Injeel. I am preparing answers to give him.I can get that also from the answering-christianity blog(http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php) But my real doubt is,as the title of my question says,the meaning of 'bayna yadayhi' or 'between his hands'(Please reread the last part of my question).I asked it here because I thought there would be people knowing more Arabic. I hope I will get a good reply from here. Thank you. Salam, S.H.O

I am not Muslim, so please excuse me if I am mistaken on any of these points. I have been reading an English translation of the Quran (I believe it is called 'the clear Quran'), and many times I have read the phrase "There is no god ˹worthy of worship˺ except Allah" and variations on it. My understanding is that the brackets around 'worthy of worship' mean it was not directly translated from the Arabic, but an added phrase included to capture the intended meaning. This addition, at least on its face, profoundly changes the meaning of the statement, so it seems a very important inclusion. What is the purpose or meaning of this phrase in context, and is it widely agreed upon among scholars that it is appropriate to include this qualifier?

I am asking about the verse 3:54 of the Quran where it says: > والله خير الماكرين According to this website: https://www.almaany.com/en/dict/ar-en/%D9%85%D8%A7%D9%83%D8%B1/ The word of "ماكر" is mean: > deceive; crafty; deceitful; deceptive; equivocator; knavish; misguiding; misleading Does this phrase translate to 'Allah is best deceiver'?

Assalamu Alaikum, What is the meaning of "ذ‌‍ٰلك" in Quran 2:2? Many or even all Quran translaters have translated it as "This". But in an Arabic-English I found Arabic word for "This" is "ذا" or "هذا". And word "ذٰلك" in not present in the dictionary and it appears to be a combination of two words; "ذا" (this) and "لك" (yours). So why it is not translated as "This yours"? Please can you explain me its real meaning or why/how it is translated as "This", as I have very less knowledge of Arabic language. I shall be very thankful to you.

The literal translation of the verse https://quran.com/2/7 is > Allah has sealed their hearts, locking inside them their falsehood, > and has placed a seal on their hearing, so that they do not listen to > nor accept the truth. He has put a cover over their eyes so that they > do not see the truth in its clarity. They will suffer greatly. To whom does this verse refer? A non-Muslim disbeliever or a Muslim disbeliever? If this verse refers to a non-Muslim disbeliever then doesn't this feel unjust? Why will Allah SWT punish someone for not believing and following Islam if He himself made them so? It's like they were stopped from not understanding and following Islam by Allah SWT himself and then in the afterlife, they are being punished for not following Islam. If this verse refers to a Muslim disbeliever, then this should mean that any Muslim disbeliever shouldn't be able to revert back to Islam as Allah would have sealed his/her heart but there are instances where people have reverted back. Please help me understand this verse.

Assalamualaikum, I am fully aware that all the ten major qiraats are authentic and have no contradictions in them. I am having trouble on ayat in particular which is Surah hud ayat 81 in hafs and Al-bazzi. I have seen one response on this website but I am still confused on how it means the same thing. In hafs the ayat reads as if the angles command prophet Lut to take everyone in his family except his wife and to not look back. On the other hand in Al-bazzi from my understanding it reads like the angles are commanding him to take everyone including his wife and that she’ll be the only one to look back. I don’t understand how the angels could have said both and meant the same thing. Jazakallah Khair for any help you can give.

In the Quran Allah says he released the two water source freshwater and salt water. Put barrier between them so they don't transgress. > He released the two seas, meeting [side by side]; (19) Between them is a barrier [so] neither of them transgresses. (20) So which of the favors of your Lord would you deny? (55:19-21 ) Quran 25:55 and 55:19-21. Ibn KATHIR and bunch of other scholars explained the barrier is dry land that prevent the saltwater transgressing against freshwater. Meaning sea doesn't destroy the freshwater sources. There is something call saltwater intrusion, it's due to sea lvl rising or strom or land eroding due to high tide or storm etc. (I am only referring to natural cause not human induced like climate change cause it etc.). So how to understand the verse when it says they don't transgress but here we know naturally there are time when salt water intrusion happens, and it destroys the freshwater sources. Also I looked into the explanation of salt water and fresh water don't mix due to saline lvl. This modern argument don't fit cuz given enough time it does mix. I don't mean to cast any doubts, may Allah forgive me for if I said something wrong?