Why is the doctrine that a Christian subscribes to such as Trinitarianism, Unitarianism, Methodists, Baptists et cetera so important when someone like Abraham was justified on faith alone? God told him to leave and he did and it was accorded him righteousness: *Genesis 15:6* >Abraham believed the Lord, and he counted it to him as righteousness. Paul also reinforced that salvation is by faith alone: *Romans 4:3* >Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness.” The two instances above actually seem to teach that believing in Jesus is what actually saves people and not whether or not they were Trinitarian or Unitarian since faith is universal to all Christian denominations. The Jewish saints of the OT who came after Moses did not seek a reason as to why God who is "one" uses the word "us" to refer to Himself; they did not care about doctrine yet they were saved, so why is it so important now?

I am a member of the Lutheran Church Missouri Synod in the USA. I ask the following question not to be quarrelsome or to demean the Roman Catholic Church. I only wish to obtain an authoritative answer to the question. This question arose [elsewhere](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/113517/what-is-the-current-teaching-of-the-roman-catholic-church-in-regards-to-excommun) in the comments section whether the Roman Catholic Church specifically condemns any particular person to hell. Ken Graham wrote: "For the record, the Church has never declared a person damned, that includes Judas Iscariot." And yet in the Papal Bull [Exsurge Domine](https://www.papalencyclicals.net/leo10/l10exdom.htm) issued by Pope Leo X in 1520 it states: "Moreover, because the preceding errors and many others are contained in the books or writings of Martin Luther.... "Therefore we can, without any further citation or delay, proceed against him to his condemnation and damnation as one whose faith is notoriously suspect and in fact a true heretic with the full severity of each and all of the above penalties and censures." This suggests that Pope Leo X condemned Luther to hell. So, if current practice is not to condemn a particular person to hell, when did that practice change and was there an official edict issued that established the new policy?

Many Christian traditions emphasize that salvation is by grace through faith and not by works (e.g., Ephesians 2:8–9). However, in John 5:28–29, Jesus says: >“...all who are in the graves will hear his voice and come out—those who have done good to the resurrection of life, and those who have done evil to the resurrection of judgment.” This seems to associate final outcomes (life vs. judgment) with what people have done, rather than solely with faith. How do Christians who hold that works do not contribute to salvation interpret this passage? I’m particularly interested in how this verse is reconciled with doctrines like *sola fide*.

I am looking for a good overview/introduction to atonement theory that covers multiple points of view so that I can better understand the difference between the various different theories. I am not looking for someone to outline them here, as I would like a more thorough answer than what would be reasonable in a SE answer. I am also looking for something beyond what Wikipedia provides, as frankly it is not very helpful. Perhaps a book that devotes a chapter or two to an academic presentation of several different views, but doesn't (strongly) argue for or against any of them, would be best.

Can you tell me how to determine the date of Memorial in a certain year?

The Church has the authority over marriage (Council of Trent , sess. 24, can. 4 ), and Canon Law has established the diriment impediment : >Can. 1083 §1. A man before he has completed his sixteenth year of age and a woman before she has completed her fourteenth year of age cannot enter into a valid marriage. But can, in addition to this, the Church say that the difference in ages between the man and woman marrying must not be more than, for example, 10 years? Have canonists deliberated on the question of marital age disparity? Is there a reason the Church does not (at least currently) have a law prohibiting marriages with large age disparities?

In a previous post (since deleted), a commenter asked whether my question was regarding a pre Tribulation, in Tribulation, or post Tribulation theory of the Rapture. I was confused on this point, which is one reason I deleted the question, and am asking this one instead. Matthew 5:13 says: "13 “You are the salt of the earth, but if salt has lost its taste, how shall its saltiness be restored? It is no longer good for anything except to be thrown out and trampled under people's feet." I believe that this may be a reference to the world getting worse after the Rapture removes the better people from the world. I would like an overview of the main theories regarding the Rapture, and which Christian sects believe which version.

Some modern Christian leaders, including **Pope Francis**, have made strong statements emphasizing that God is not aligned with violence or those who “wield the sword.” This seems to echo Jesus’ teachings about loving enemies and avoiding retaliation. However, within historic Christian theology, thinkers like **Augustine of Hippo** and **Thomas Aquinas** developed Just War Theory, which allows for the use of force under strict conditions (e.g., defense of the innocent, last resort, proportionality). This raises a tension, especially when considering historical examples such as: - The Allied effort to liberate Europe from Nazi Germany - The freeing of prisoners from concentration camps In such cases, many would argue that the use of force was necessary to stop grave injustice. How do different Christian traditions (e.g., Catholic, Protestant, Orthodox) reconcile: - Strong nonviolence statements about God and the sword with - The moral framework of Just War Theory? Do such statements represent a development of doctrine toward pacifism, or are they best understood as rhetorical or pastoral emphases rather than strict theological claims?

In 1 Corinthians 15:45, Paul writes: >“The first man Adam became a living being; the last Adam became a life-giving spirit.” (ESV) In context, Paul is contrasting Adam and Christ, particularly in relation to life and resurrection. The phrase “life-giving Spirit” seems to attribute to Jesus a role that, elsewhere in Scripture, is closely associated with God (i.e., giving life; cf. Genesis 2:7, John 5:21). From a Bible Unitarian perspective, Jesus is understood as a fully human Messiah and not ontologically divine. - How is the ability to give life explained without attributing divinity to Christ? - How is this reconciled with other passages where giving life appears to be a uniquely divine prerogative?

I was listening to a recent Pints with Aquinas (about 25 minutes in) https://open.spotify.com/episode/4GTsBlLybMDqQCxdYltRO4?si=fd22facaad8040a5 the priest being interviewed was talking about different color clerical shirts having some hidden meaning. Is there a list of secret meanings behind this clerical garb? Gray, white, etc... were there other colors that were used in the 1960's and 1970's?

I was just reading about eschatology and somebody was stating that this verse suggests that there will be a one world religion, a false religion: > Revelation 17:1–18 (ESV) > > 1 Then one of the seven angels who had the seven bowls came and said > to me, “Come, I will show you the judgment of the great prostitute who > is seated on many waters, 2 with whom the kings of the earth have > committed sexual immorality ... Where is support for this concept found in other scriptures?

It is my understand that John Calvin arrived at Geneva in 1537; and then, because of various theological disagreements and conflicts, was exiled a year later. Then, some years later (1541 I think it was), he not only returned to Geneva, but had been *invited* to do so. QUESTION: Why was John Calvin invited to return to Geneva?

### Introduction In the Hebrew Bible in Deuteronomy 30:15, God says that He is who sets the choice between good and evil before people: > See, I have set before you this day life and good, death and evil. In the Lords Prayer in Matthew 6, God is asked to not lead people into temptation: > Our Father who art in heaven, > Hallowed be thy name. ... > **And lead us not into temptation**, > But deliver us from evil. There seems to be many possible answers from the Christian bible: Satan, mankind's own fallen nature, or even Jesus himself. ### Question In Protestant theology, who or what tempts people into sin?

1 Corinthians 7:4 says: > The wife does not have authority over her own body but yields it to her husband. In the same way, the husband does not have authority over his own body but yields it to his wife. If a man sleeps with another woman without his wife's knowledge or consent, that would be adultery. But what if he does so at the **behest** of his wife, with her knowledge and consent, even instigation, as Abraham did with Hagar at Sarah's suggestion? Is he then relinquishing "authority" over his own body but yielding it to his wife? I'm interested in an _overview_ of the views of various Christian denominations on this, or other forms of consensual (on the part of both/all parties) open marriages - are there any that consider them to be okay?

One New Testament exhortation is "judge not, lest you be judged." On the other hand, Romans 3:23 says, "For all have sinned, and fall short of the glory of God." Is there any Christian sect, or school of thought believes the converse of the first line, something like "Judge and let yourself be judged?" The core belief here would be something like, "You are a wicked, evil, sinful (wo)man--and so am I." (That's per the Romans passage.) Put another way, is it possible to pass judgment on e.g. Adolf Hitler, knowing that "in his shoes, you or I might have done the same or similar things?" Some commenters below believe that a Christian can, and should judge the actions of others, while refraining from judging the "righteousness" of the person. Another opined that the admonition is against "hypocrisy," that the "converse" is OK, if you realize that "as you deal with my contemners, so with you my grace shall deal." Are either of these ideas in line with what the Scripture says? I am interested in an overview about what various sects say about judging others.

I was looking for information about the founders of Jehovah's Witnesses. It looks like some notable early people were the founder Charles T. Russell and then Joseph F. Rutherford who was the president after Russell's death. The material at Jehovah's Witnesses websites (here , and here ) however does not provide a lot of information on the titles these or other leaders were referred by, or how their statements or writings were viewed. Example from paragraph 7 in an article titled "Methods of Preaching​—Using Every Means to Reach People" (located here ): > The second event was the death of Brother Russell on October 31, 1916. > Thus, The Watch Tower of December 15, 1916, announced: “Now that > Brother Russell has passed beyond, the sermon feature [in the > newspapers] will be discontinued entirely.” Although this avenue of > preaching came to an end, other methods, such as the “Photo-Drama of > Creation,” continued to have great success. Example from an article titled “When Are We Going to Have Another Assembly?”, located here : > During his visit, Brother Rutherford encouraged these faithful ones > very much with two motivating talks at the convention and five > lectures that were broadcast on the radio. The only reference to a title I have found so far is "brother". **Questions to JWs:** 1. Do you use any other titles ("Reverend"/"Prophet"/"Elder"/etc.) when referring to those who are currently, or have been in the past, in high standing in your organization? 2. Do you consider anybody currently alive, or anyone who has been on earth since Jesus, to be a prophet (someone put in position by God to foretell future events)? 3. Do you consider any current or past JWs to have been infallible? 4. Do you have any books or other writings that are considered sacred or infallible (excluding the Bible)?

**About Me:** I am 27 years old. I am a baptized believer who came to the faith about 2-3 years ago. I try to attend Liturgy every week, observe Great Lent, and celebrate Easter and Christmas. I strive to act according to my conscience, treat people with kindness, give alms, perform good deeds, and practice understanding and forgiveness. I recognize the importance of these things; I see how overeating, malice, anger, and pride affect my life and have noticed these patterns repeatedly. I understand the core of the teachings and have read the Gospels, though I haven't read the entire Bible yet. I do not have a spiritual father. I currently live in Georgia, but I do not speak Georgian. I attend a Georgian church, but the service and the sermon are as incomprehensible to me as a service in the Russian Orthodox Church is due to the use of Church Slavonic. I go to confession and receive Communion once a month. However, I still struggle and find myself committing the same sins. I have a sincere desire to learn, grow spiritually, find answers to my questions, and strengthen my faith, but I am not sure how to move forward. **Theological Questions:** Creation vs. Science: God created Adam and Eve—how does this reconcile with the modern theory of evolution? The Nature of Christ: Why did Christ pray, and to whom, if He is God? The Trinity: What is the Trinity? What does it mean that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son (the Filioque in Catholicism), and why does Orthodoxy maintain it is from the Father alone? How can God be three Persons yet one Being? The Afterlife: What is the Last Judgment? Will everyone go to Heaven after death, or only some? What is Purgatory? What are Heaven and Hell, exactly? Sacraments: Why are the Sacraments (Mysteries) essential? The Problem of Evil: If God is love, why is there so much suffering and sin on Earth? Why do people die and suffer while the world drowns in violence and hunger? Death and Grief: If the soul reunites with God in eternity after death, why do Christians grieve and weep at funerals? Shouldn't it be seen as a blessing? Original Sin: What is original sin, and why did it occur? Why did Christ have to die and rise for us? Why was a "blood sacrifice" of His Son necessary for an all-powerful God to forgive humanity? Couldn't He have just chosen to forgive us? Redemption: Does Christ's sacrifice mean all people are now sinless and will go to Heaven? What exactly was Christ's "heroic feat" (podvig)? Chrismation: What is Chrismation, and what is its purpose? Communion: How often should one receive Communion? Is fasting required beforehand, and for how many days? The Purpose of Life: If we ultimately fall into God's eternal love after death, why does this life exist at all? Why create us if we just end up back with Him? Image and Likeness: If man is made in God's image, and man is sinful, does that imply something about God's nature? Hell and Forgiveness: If God is all-forgiving but not everyone is saved, why does Hell exist? Does God want people to suffer eternally for their mistakes? Free Will: Why do humans have the freedom to create evil? Why couldn't we have been created as exclusively kind and loving beings? Old vs. New Testament: Why is the Old Testament full of violence and mass killings, while the New Testament says "love your enemies"? How do we reconcile commands to destroy nations or the justification of slavery in some texts? Theodicy: If God is omniscient, He knew the Holocaust would happen. If He is omnipotent, He could have stopped it. If He didn't, does that mean He is either not all-powerful or not good? Adam’s Sin: If God is all-forgiving, why didn't He just forgive Adam instead of "cursing" the human race? God’s Self-Sufficiency: If God is self-sufficient and needs nothing, why create the world to "share love"? Salvation: What does "salvation" actually mean? Do people who live righteous lives but don't believe in Christ or attend church get saved? What about those who never heard of Christ (e.g., indigenous peoples)? Cosmology: Why does scripture say God created life in 6 days when the universe is ~13.8 billion years old? Denominations: Why do other religions and denominations exist? Does God want people to believe in "incorrect" things? Why is there a schism? Divine Sovereignty: If God knows everything in advance and predestines who is saved, do we actually have free will? Divinity of Jesus: In the Gospels, Jesus often calls Himself the "Son of Man." The direct "I and the Father are one" is primarily in John (written later). Why is He considered God rather than just a prophet? **Questions on Spiritual Growth:** How do I find a spiritual father or a community? What literature should I start with to continue my Christian education and strengthen my faith? I fasted during Great Lent for two years easily, but this year was extremely difficult. I only lasted three weeks and felt constant temptation to quit. I feel my faith has weakened. Is this a sin? How should I have handled it, and can I still take Communion? Is a "prayer rule" mandatory? What if I don't feel an internal "spark" or find it difficult to pray using complex, formal texts rather than my own words? **Behavioral Questions:** How should I react if someone insults Christianity or God in my presence? Should I just forgive and remain calm? **Denominational Differences:** What are the core differences between Protestantism, Catholicism, and Orthodoxy? Why did the Great Schism happen? Why did the Orthodox Church persecute the Old Believers, and why did they break away? Why is the service in the ROC in Church Slavonic if people don't understand it, while other countries use modern languages? Why do Protestants reject Sacred Tradition, monasticism, and the priesthood? Why do some branches accept same-sex marriage? Why can't women be priests in Orthodoxy and Catholicism? Infant baptism (Orthodox) vs. Adult baptism (Protestant)—what is the theological conflict here? Why do Orthodox churches use icons, candles, and gold? Shouldn't we strive for asceticism? Is it true that in some Protestant communities, you are expelled if you don't pay a mandatory tithe? Why are Protestants often viewed as "sectarians" in some cultures? Why do we pray to the Virgin Mary and the Saints? Why are there no pews in Orthodox churches? Why "torture" people by making them stand instead of allowing them to sit and concentrate better?

I have read in numerous commentaries on John 20 that Thomas first met the resurrected Christ on Sunday, the first day of the week. Here is one illustrative example, though others I've looked at are similar in substance: > Verses 26-31 We have here an account of another appearance of Christ > to his disciples, after his resurrection, when Thomas was now with > them. And concerning this we may observe,I. When it was that Christ > repeated his visit to his disciples: **After eight days, that day > seven-night after he rose, which must therefore be, as that was, the > first day of the week.** Matthew Henry's commentary on John 20 [emphasis is mine] Here are the relevant verses from the Bible: > John 20 (NKJV) > > 19 Then, **the same day at evening, being the first day > of the week**, when the doors were shut where the disciples were > assembled, for fear of the Jews, Jesus came and stood in the midst, > and said to them, “Peace be with you.” 24 Now Thomas, called the > Twin, one of the twelve, was not with them when Jesus came. 25 The > other disciples therefore said to him, “We have seen the Lord.” So he > said to them, “Unless I see in His hands the print of the nails, and > put my finger into the print of the nails, and put my hand into His > side, I will not believe.” 26 **And after eight days His disciples were > again inside, and Thomas with them. Jesus came,** the doors being shut, > and stood in the midst, and said, “Peace to you!” Perhaps I'm being naïve, but starting from the Lord's day, Sunday, I count "and after eight days" (Greek: "καὶ μεθ’ ἡμέρας ὀκτὼ") to mean the Monday of the following week, that is, eight days after the first Sunday. It seems that the commentaries I've read interpret it to mean "on the eight day", which would indeed work out to the following Sunday. However, I'm having difficulty understanding how "after eight days" can be understood in this way. So, my question is: **On what day of the week did Thomas first meet the resurrected Christ? Was it on a Sunday, a Monday, or some other day of the week?** My main interest in this question is to understand if these verses in John 20 are indeed a valid support for the practice of Christians meeting on Sunday. I don't question the practice (there are many other verses in Acts, 1 Corinthians and Revelation that support it); I am simply trying to understand whether John 20 indeed displays the first case of Christians meeting as Christians on two consecutive Sundays. I'm having a hard time seeing this in this particular chapter.

I’m seeking some theological and exegetical insight regarding the use of the word “appoint” in the New Testament passages about the establishment of elders (e.g. Acts 14:23; Titus 1:5). In many English translations, appoint can sound like a top-down decision made by a few leaders. However, the Greek terms involved (such as χειροτονέω and καθίστημι) seem to carry a broader sense related to recognition, commissioning, or placing someone into a role, often within a communal or ecclesial context. My question is this: Does the New Testament use of “appoint elders” necessarily imply a unilateral decision by church leaders, or does it presuppose some form of communal discernment, recognition, or confirmation by the local church? I would appreciate perspectives from biblical studies, church history, or different ecclesiological traditions.

Both Peter and Paul disapprove the use of jewelry in plain words. > “Whose adorning let it not be that outward adorning of plaiting the hair, and of wearing of gold, or of putting on of apparel; But let it be the hidden man of the heart, in that which is not corruptible, even the ornament of a meek and quiet spirit, which is in the sight of God of great price. ” 1 Peter 3:3-4 KJV Then again, >“In like manner also, that women adorn themselves in modest apparel, with shamefacedness and sobriety; not with broided hair, or gold, or pearls, or costly array; But (which becometh women professing godliness) with good works.” 1 Timothy 2:9-10 KJV Did the early Christian women wear jewels? Edit: I am looking for biblical or extrabiblical history / description of Christian women's apparel / ornaments or the lack of it.