The following Hadith has often been cited by many people to prove that the Jewish Torah has not been corrupted:- He (the Prophet, sallallaahu ‘alayhi wa sallam) was given the Torah and he took away the pillow from beneath him and then he put the Torah on it and then he said: “I believe in you [Torah] and in the One Who had sent you down.” (Sunan Abi Dawud 4449) Many people believe that since Prophet Muhammad (Sallallahu'alayhiwassalam) said, "I believed in thee and in Him Who revealed thee", this proves that the Torah that was in front of him was not corrupted. This is something contrary to the Muslim claim that the Torah in its present form has been corrupted. **Question: What is the truth behind this narration? Is this narration even authentic? It has been cited in Ibn Kathir's Abridged version of commentary.**

Assalamu 'Alaikum dear brothers and sisters A Christian recently argued with me by quoting Al Ahqaf:30 that Prophet (S) had the Original Thaurath in his hands. Here is what he said: > "Let me give you some more proof that the Torah at the time of > Mohammed was the truth, acording to your Prophet. Take for example > Surah Al-Ahqaf verse 30, in your major translations by Muslims. > Take the translation by Abdullah Yusuf Ali. It says: "They said, "O > our people, we have heard a book revealed after Moses, confirming what > came before it; it guides (men) to the truth and to a straight path." > Look at the words highlighted above that say "before it." In the > Arabic the words are not "before it." Let's do a word for word > translation, and I leave it to the Arabic reader to be honest to > himself when he reading this word for word translation: Arabic: kaloo > ya kawmana inna sami'ina kitaban unzila ba'd Musa English: they said > O our people we have heard a book revealed after Moses Arabic: > Musadekan Lima Bayna Yadayehe English: confirming what is between his > hands Arabic: Yahdee ela al-hak wa-ela tareekin mustakeem English: > it guides to the truth and to a straight path My point is the un > corrupted BIBLE was in their hands at the time of Mohammed. Where is > the uncorrupted copy of the BIBLE. Why is it that we have copies of > the BIBLE from the &th century and copies from the 4th 3nd the 2nd and > we also have copies from the 10th 12 th an up to today and all say the > same thing. all come from the same manuscripts in Hebrew, Greek and > Aramaic. So I dont have a clue what youare talking about. you are just > repeating what you have been told. I suggest you go study your own > religion first before you comment on a religion you dont know anything > about." I replied like this: > "Here is the right translation. Of Ahqaf:30 > > {They said, "O our people! We have heard a Book revealed after Moses, > confirmation for what is before it: it guides to the Truth and to > Straight Path. } > One thing you said is right.The word-by-word > translation says “What is between its hands”.It is an Arabic idiom for > saying 'In front of' or 'before'.See Al Baqara 66 for Example. > Now you > have quoted Ahqaf:30 and stated that Original Thourath existed at the > time of Prophet Muhammed (S). > My question:Where does it say that > 'Thaurath exist in its original form'? Nowhere.It just says that > Qur'an conforms the Thaurath.It says about the Thaurath,which is > already corrupted. How can you know that the manuscripts you > said,which belongs to 2nd,3rd,4th centuries,etc are not corrupted? > Just have a check at the Great Isaiah Scroll: > http://www.answering-christianity.com/topic_1996.htm " He said: > "You getting your information from answeringchristianuty.com no wonder > you are confused. This guy Osama Abdullah fabricated emails, then had > to admit and apologize. This is your source of information a confessed > liar. A man whi CHRISTIAN PRINCE destroyed in every debate. Wow you > are really lost. Seeing that you cannot read either Arabic or English. > The verse says BETWEEN HIS HANDS that sir means the prophet had the > uncorrupted copy in his hands. The words translated as BEFORE IT > doesnot mean that it is a deception the proper translation of BAYNA > YADAYEHE. Is BETWEEN HIS HANDS. Your lieing schollar neglected to tell > you what the arabic really says. My next question would be, WHY WOULD > YOU HAVE TO LIE TO PROVE THE BOOK OF UTHMAN TO BE TRUE?." As you see,he didn't accept what I said: "The word-by-word translation says "What is between its hands".It is an Arabic idiom for saying 'In front of' or 'before'.See Al Baqara 66 for Example." In Holy Qur'an 2:65-66 Allah says: > بِسْمِ اللَّهِ الرَّحْمَـٰنِ الرَّحِيمِ > > { وَلَقَدْ عَلِمْتُمُ الَّذِينَ اعْتَدَوْا مِنكُمْ فِي السَّبْتِ > فَقُلْنَا لَهُمْ كُونُوا قِرَدَةً خَاسِئِينَ > > And you had already known about those who transgressed among you > concerning the sabbath, and We said to them, "Be monkeys, despised." > > فَجَعَلْنَاهَا نَكَالًا لِّمَا بَيْنَ يَدَيْهَا وَمَا خَلْفَهَا > وَمَوْعِظَةً لِّلْمُتَّقِينَ >And We made it a deterrent punishment > for those who were present and those who succeeded [them] and a lesson > for those who fear Allah. } The verse 66 says “Bayna Yadayha” which means 'between her hands'.But it is absurd to translate it like that. Similarly, there are other verses like: > {And it is He who sends the winds as good tidings before His mercy, > and We send down from the sky pure water}(Holy Qur'an 25:48) Now,before replying to that Kafir,I just want to conform my point: In Arabic,'Between the hands' means means 'before' and 'in front of'.It is an idiom or figurative speech. I need conformation for that Please say if I am right or wrong. _____ ### EDIT ### P.S: Our debate was of course about the preservation the Bible/Thaurath/Injeel. I am preparing answers to give him.I can get that also from the answering-christianity blog(http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php) But my real doubt is,as the title of my question says,the meaning of 'bayna yadayhi' or 'between his hands'(Please reread the last part of my question).I asked it here because I thought there would be people knowing more Arabic. I hope I will get a good reply from here. Thank you. Salam, S.H.O

If I understand correctly, Islam accepts several holy books as authored by Allah. Obviously, Muslims are encouraged to read the Quran, but among these books are the Bible (or Gospel) and the Torah, and it's not clear to me whether or not Muslims are encouraged to read them too. **Question**: Are Muslims encouraged to read the Bible and/or the Torah? Why or why not? As in: Would it be worthwhile? Could reading these books lead a Muslim astray? Is there some things a Muslim should know before reading them? On one hand, they're authored by Allah. But, at the same time, they're not treated the same way as the Quran, nor do I encounter e.g. Muslims reading or quoting from the Bible. There may also be some underlying politics involved here. It's unclear to me how to interpret this. This question https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/14433/17163 has vague and unreferenced answers. The OP of this question https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/10216/17163 writes "...the Bible is said to be either corrupted or superseded by the Quran." The answer to this question https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/25601/17163 writes "...the Qur'an is the word of God applicable today". The top answer to this question https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/12884/17163 writes "...a large chunk of the New Testament was written by Paul, whom the Qur'an doesn't recognize as a Prophet". And the answer to this question https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/4253/17163 says "...the Gospel and Torah was revealed from Allah but this does not validate its current day authenticity or require us to believe in its present day content entirely." My impression from the above linked questions is that it's either discouraged, or, at least, not strongly encouraged. Nobody seems to be arguing that it's critical for a Muslim to read these books.

I already have studied the Torah (Old Testament) and I'm now studying the New Testament and The Holy Quran. I have a question regarding prophets. How come Muslims believe in prophets after Malachi since in the Torah it's said that in Yehoshua 23:6: > וַחֲזַקְתֶּם מְאֹד--לִשְׁמֹר וְלַעֲשׂוֹת, אֵת כָּל-הַכָּתוּב בְּסֵפֶר > תּוֹרַת מֹשֶׁה: לְבִלְתִּי סוּר-מִמֶּנּוּ, יָמִין וּשְׂמֹאול > > Be very strong to protect and do everything that is written in Moshe's > Torah. Do not deviate from it to the right or to the left. In Deuteronomy 4:2 : > ... לֹא תֹסִפוּ, עַל-הַדָּבָר אֲשֶׁר אָנֹכִי מְצַוֶּה אֶתְכֶם, וְלֹא > תִגְרְעוּ, מִמֶּנּוּ > > Do not add onto what I am commanding to you, and do not detract from > it... Proverbs 30:6 : > אַל-תּוֹסְףְּ עַל-דְּבָרָיו: פֶּן-יוֹכִיחַ בְּךָ וְנִכְזָבְתָּ > > Do not add onto [God's] words, lest he test you and you be found to be > a liar. Rambam writes in his Mishneh Torah about it : > לפיכך אם יעמוד איש בין מן האומות בין מישראל ויעשה אות ומופת ויאמר שה' > שלחו להוסיף מצוה או לגרוע מצוה או לפרש במצוה מן המצות פירוש שלא שמענו > ממשה או שאמר שאותן המצות שנצטוו בהן ישראל אינן לעולם ולדורי דורות אלא > מצות לפי זמן היו הרי זה נביא שקר שהרי בא להכחיש נבואתו של משה ומיתתו > בחנק על שהזיד לדבר בשם ה' אשר לא צוהו > > Therefore, if a person will arise, whether Jew or gentile, and perform > a sign or wonder and say that God sent him to: > > a) add a mitzvah, > > b) withdraw a mitzvah > > c) explain a mitzvah in a manner which differs from the tradition > received from Moses, or > > d) if he says that the mitzvot commanded to the Jews are not forever, > but rather were given for a limited time, > > he is a false prophet. He comes to deny the prophecy of Moses and > should be executed by strangulation, because he dared to make > statements in God's name which God never made. All these sources, from original holy scripture but also from commentaries express that nothing may be added or subtracted from the Torah. Even someone who claims to be a prophet may never do so, and to attempt to do so will show him to be a false prophet. So how come Muslims believe in the Torah/Old Testament but also believe in prophets such as Jesus (pbuh) and Muhammad (pbuh)? Thank you for your help and guidance.

Why did Allah send more than one book to mankind.Explain your Answer. Please consider adding references from the quran and sunnah to your answer.

Is there any source or reference or evidence about the languages in which the Prophet Muhammad was fluent? Specially that Quran is very much inspired by the Old Testament.

I found many references in the holy Qur'an about reading Torat\Torah and also about believing in Torah. So should Muslims read Torah or just deny it on the basis of assumed corruption?

I have been told by my Muslim connections that there is a story in the Quran that relates how wicked the Jews are because they would lay traps to trap fish on the Sabbath. My question is given that the Quran obviously condemns Sabbath desecration by a Jew would it not make sense that a Jew who converts to Islam is still obligated to observe the Sabbath being under the covenant of the Torah which the Quran seems to accept was, at least in its original form, of divine origin? To my horror when I asked this question to my Yemenite Arabic teacher he answered that a Jew that converts should not continue to observe the Sabbath. Surely he is mistaken? Did Islam come to change the Torah? Surely that cannot be the official position of Islamic scholarship?

I recently saw a trailer about a biblical person named Samson. I have not heard anything similar in the Islamic scriptures. URL: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mSolF3QBVBY Do we reject the story or simply ignore it as the Prophet was silent about it?

I was talking to a Jewish friend of mine, topic came to whether the Torah the Jews have now is the one actually sent to Moses. She said that the Rabbis told her that the Torah they have right now is indeed the original Torah. I said that would be impossible; if nothing else, Allah would not send the Qur'an while the original Torah is still around. Of course what I said is hypothesis. I have also quoted the Qur'an: > Do you (faithful believers) desire the unbelievers to believe in your > religion. There was a group among them (Jewish rabbis) who would hear > the word of God [Torah] and understand it. Then they would purposely > misinterpret it. **—Qur'an 2:75** > > > Some Jews take certain words out of context and by twisting their > tongues to make a jest out of the true religion, say, "We heard and > (in our hearts ) disobeyed. (Muhammad) ra`ina (be kind to us) but they > intend thereby (the meaning in their own language): "Listen! May God > turn you deaf." They should have said, "We heard and obeyed. > (Muhammad) listen and consider our question." This would have been > better for them and more righteous. God has condemned them for their > disbelief, thus, no one, except a few among them, will have faith. > **—Qur'an 4:46** > > > O Messenger! Do not be grieved about the people who run back to > disbelief. They only say that they believe but, in fact, they have no > faith in their hearts. Some Jews knowingly listen to lies and accept > the lies which come from others, [Jews], who have no relation with you > and who distort certain words of the Bible and say to the people, > "Accept only those words which are the same as what We have told you. > If you do not, then beware!" You can not help those whom God wants to > try. God does not want to cleanse the hearts of such people. They lead > a disgraceful life in this world and in the life hereafter they will > suffer a great torment. **—Qur'an 5:41** > > > And [mention, O Muhammad], when Moses said to his people, "O my > people, why do you harm me while you certainly know that I am the > messenger of Allah to you?" And when they deviated, Allah caused their > hearts to deviate. And Allah does not guide the defiantly disobedient > people. • And [mention] when Jesus, the son of Mary, said, "O children > of Israel, indeed I am the messenger of Allah to you confirming what > came before me of the Torah and bringing good tidings of a messenger > to come after me, whose name is Ahmad." But when he came to them with > clear evidences, they said, "This is obvious magic." —**Qur'an 61:6-7** > > > It is He who has sent His Messenger with guidance and the true > religion to make it prevail over all other religions. God is a > sufficient witness to this truth. **—Qur'an 48:28** > > > And whoever seeks a religion other than Islam, it will never be > accepted of him, and in the Hereafter he will be one of the losers. > **Qur'an —3:85** And also few hadith: > By Him in Whose hand is the life of Muhammad, he who amongst the > community of Jews or Christians hears about me, but does not affirm > his belief in that with which I have been sent and dies in this state > (of disbelief), he shall be but one of the denizens of Hell-Fire. > Sunnah.com > > > Ibn Abbas said, "Why do you ask the people of the scripture about > anything while your Book (Qur'an) which has been revealed to Allah's > Messenger is newer and the latest? You read it pure, undistorted and > unchanged, and Allah has told you that the people of the scripture > (Jews and Christians) changed their scripture and distorted it, and > wrote the scripture with their own hands and said, "It is from Allah," > to sell it for a little gain. Does not the knowledge which has come to > you prevent you from asking them about anything? No, by Allah, we have > never seen any man from them asking you regarding what has been > revealed to you!" Sunnah.com However, the portions I quoted from the Qur'an do not unequivocally assert that the original Torah does not exist, nor does it assert that the Jews must become Muslims. Are there other ayath in the Qur'an that would shed light on this matter?

Translation of Quran 5:45 by "Sahih International" trio (Emily Assami, Amatullah Bantley, Mary Kennedy): > And We ordained for them therein a life for a life, an eye for an eye, > a nose for a nose, an ear for an ear, a tooth for a tooth, and for > wounds is legal retribution. But whoever gives [up his right as] > charity, it is an expiation for him. And whoever does not judge by > what Allah has revealed - then it is those who are the wrongdoers. "for them" - this is about Jews. As i know, this rule also applies to Muslims. (for example, in https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/45944 you can see that). But how do I know that this indeed applies also to Muslims? maybe there are hadith which clearly say that?

In surah Baqara, aya 144 Allah (SWT) says: قَدْ نَرَىٰ تَقَلُّبَ وَجْهِكَ فِى ٱلسَّمَآءِ ۖ فَلَنُوَلِّيَنَّكَ قِبْلَةًۭ تَرْضَىٰهَا ۚ فَوَلِّ وَجْهَكَ شَطْرَ ٱلْمَسْجِدِ ٱلْحَرَامِ ۚ وَحَيْثُ مَا كُنتُمْ فَوَلُّوا۟ وُجُوهَكُمْ شَطْرَهُۥ ۗ وَإِنَّ ٱلَّذِينَ أُوتُوا۟ ٱلْكِتَـٰبَ لَيَعْلَمُونَ أَنَّهُ ٱلْحَقُّ مِن رَّبِّهِمْ ۗ وَمَا ٱللَّهُ بِغَـٰفِلٍ عَمَّا يَعْمَلُونَ ١٤٤ > We have seen your face turned towards the heaven. So We will turn you towards a direction that will satisfy you. So turn your face towards the Sacred Mosque. And wherever you may be, turn your faces towards it. Those who were given the Book know that it is the Truth from their Lord; and God is not unaware of what they do. And in [this](https://abdurrahman.org/2014/01/27/changingqiblah/) article it is mentioned that Jews knew that Muslims would change their Qibla. How would they know? Where in the Torah, or Tanakh it has been mentioned?

Salam , Quran is the un-altered word of Allah. Allah had promised for the protection of Quran. We also believe that Christians and Jews corrupted the Bible and Torah for their personal profits. I want to know that why did Allah only promised protection of Quran and not his others books? Why didn't he saved other books from human corruption, like he's doing for Quran?

Why does Islam reject the current versions of the Bible and Torah, even though the Qur'an confirms the existence of previous Christian and Jewish prophets like Abraham, Moses and Jesus in the Qur'an?

Is Torah (sharia'a of Jew) considered Din el Batel (دين البطل)?

Is there any narration from Taba'in or companion of Holy Prophet Muhammad (Sallallahu'alayhiwassalam) that proves that the Torah was texually corrupted or changed? When I say Torah, what I mean is the entire old testament or the Hebrew Bible. Are there any narration from taba'in or companion? Thanks!

Salaam, In the Old Testament, we have the following verses that talk about riba: > "You shall not charge interest on loans to your brother, interest on money, interest on food, interest on anything that is lent for interest. You may charge a foreigner interest, but you may not charge your brother interest, that the Lord your God may bless you in all that you undertake in the land that you are entering to take possession of it." [Deuteronomy 23:19-20] > "If you lend money to any of my people with you who is poor, you shall not be like a moneylender to him, and you shall not exact interest from him." [Exodus 22:25] > "If your brother becomes poor and cannot maintain himself with you, you shall support him as though he were a stranger and a sojourner, and he shall live with you. Take no interest from him or profit, but fear your God, that your brother may live beside you. You shall not lend him your money at interest, nor give him your food for profit." [Leviticus 25"35-37] From the above, the majority of Rabbinical scholars conclude that Jews can lend to Gentiles at interest, but they cannot do some amongst fellow Jews (hence the term "brothers" or "fellow man"). In the Qur'an, we have this verse: > "Because of the wrongdoing of the Jews We forbade them good things which were (before) made lawful unto them, and because of their much hindering from Allah's way, (160) And of their taking usury when they were forbidden it, and of their devouring people's wealth by false pretences, We have prepared for those of them who disbelieve a painful doom." [An-Nisa 159-160] Is the Islamic position that Jews were prohibited from all forms of interest, just as Muslims are today? Since we as Muslims believe that the Torah we have today is not the same as what was revealed to Moses, it would be likely in this case that either there are verses abrogating the allowance of interest based lending to Gentiles (if it was indeed allowed by Allah), or that the verse was an erroneous insertion at a later time by a scribe or rabbi. I have not been able to find a clear answer on this (since Jews themselves will say that they have always been allowed to charge interest to Gentiles based on the above passages from the Old Testament). I'm doing some research for an article and would like clarification on this (we're covering the three Abrahamic faiths and their position on interest).

Qur'an 5:44 describes the Torah (as revealed to Prophet Musa ), and the Jews are to be judged by it. Qur'an 5:47 describes the Gospel (as revealed to Prophet Isa ) and the "People of the Gospel" (presumably this means Christians) are to be judged by it. Then we have: > And We have revealed to you, [O Muhammad], the Book in truth ... **To each of you We prescribed a law and a method**. Had Allah willed, He would have made you one nation [united in religion], but [He intended] to test you in what He has given you; so race to [all that is] good. ... -- Qur'an 5:48 My reading of this is that Jews are meant to follow the Torah, and Christians are meant to follow the Gospel. Moreover, they should do so instead of following the Qur'an. The first part of this is confirmed by tafsir, e.g.: > To every one of you O communities We have appointed a divine law and a way a clear path in religion for them to proceed along. -- Tafsir al-Jalalayn But I'm unsure about the second part... **Question**: Does Qur'an 5:48 imply that Allah wants Jews to follow the Torah and Christians to follow the Gospel, instead of the Qur'an?

I was taught that there were 4 holy books revealed by the Almighty. The holy Quran, the Injeel, The Thaurath and the Zaboor. We know what happened to the people of Injeel and Taurath. What happened to the people of Zaboor? Do they still exist?

I’m writing a paper on Genesis 17 and I would love to include the perspective of Islam. Any references do not necessarily have to be from the Quran but they should be from a relatively ancient source. Here is a link to the passage in question: https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis+17&version=NIV