Ibn Abbas said : When Allah the Almighty spread out the earth over the water, it tilted with its inhabitants like a ship, so Allah the Almighty anchored it with heavy mountains so that it would not tilt with its inhabitants. https://www.islamweb.net/ar/library/content/132/3240/%D9%82%D9%88%D9%84%D9%87-%D8%AA%D8%B9%D8%A7%D9%84%D9%89-%D9%88%D8%A7%D9%84%D8%A3%D8%B1%D8%B6-%D9%85%D8%AF%D8%AF%D9%86%D8%A7%D9%87%D8%A7-%D9%88%D8%A3%D9%84%D9%82%D9%8A%D9%86%D8%A7-%D9%81%D9%8A%D9%87%D8%A7-%D8%B1%D9%88%D8%A7%D8%B3%D9%8A Ibn Abbas said : When Allah the Almighty spread out the earth over the water, it tilted with its inhabitants like a ship, so Allah the Almighty anchored it with heavy mountains so that it would not tilt with its inhabitants. https://shamela.ws/book/13607/61 There is a guy who is a flat earther muslims and he claims all the previous muslims believed earth is flat and he brings this narration among many, that this narration proves Ibn Abbas (Ra.) who was one of the great mufassarins believed earth is flat, cuz here he says when the earth was spread out over water it itlted like a ship, which doesn't go along with the idea of a sphere earth.

I feel air bubbles when I pray however I don’t have any feeling or urge of releasing gas and I just feel bubbles and I’m not sure if I pass wind but at the same time I tell myself if it’s not passing wind then where does it come from and I start getting doubtful I saw that doubts don’t affect wudu but at the same time I’m really worried about these air bubbles and I don’t want to fall in the trap of shaytan , is this passing wind or just a trick of shaytan (i don’t hear sound nor find a smell)

Assalamu Aleikum, I'd like to ask what our prophet meant when he said, **"There are 500 years of distance between each heaven."** I mean, is this '500 years' by walking/marching? I have read some of your fatwas and some tasfers, and it said that 500 years by marching, but I'd like to learn if this is the words of our Prophet or just an interpretation. Can this '500 years' be by riding, at the speed of light, or other kinds of travel? We know for a fact that our universe is so huge, and 500 years of walking is nothing compared to it. Are there other ways to interpret this hadith? Thank you. Following are some of the traditions taken from as-Suyutis al-Haya as-saniya fi l-haya as-sunniya that mention this > Ibn Rāhūya, in his Musnad, Abū š-Šayh and al-Bazzar, on the basis of a > sound chain of transmission that goes back to Abū Darr, report that > God's messenger (God's blessing and peace be with him!) presented the > following teaching: "The interval between heaven and earth is the > distance of 500 years. The diameter of every heaven is also as much as > 500 years. And the interval between this heaven and the one that comes > after it is also as big as 500 years. Thus up to the seventh heaven, > and with the earths it is similar. And the distance between the > seventh heaven and the throne corresponds to all that." > Ahmad b. Hanbal (may God be pleased with him!), in his Musnad, Abū > Dā'ūd, at-Tirmidī, who declares it to be of good quality, Ibn Māğa, > Ibn Abi Aşamm, in his Sunna, Abū Yaʻlā, Ibn Huzayma, at-Tabarānī, al- > Hakim, and giving it a sound derivation Abū š-Šayh have the following > tradition from al-'Abbas b. "Abd al-Muttalib: "We were with the > Prophet (God's blessing and peace be with him!) when he said: 'Do you > know what the distance is between heaven and earth?' - We answered: > 'God and His messenger know better!' - He said: 'Between them there is > a distance of 500 years; and from every heaven to another heaven there > is a distance of 500 years. The diameter of every heaven, too, is 500 > years. Above the seventh heaven there is a sea between the surface of > which and the greatest depth the distance is as big as that between > heaven and earth. Then, above that, there are eight mountain goats; > from their knees down to their hoofs, the distance equals that between > heaven and earth.

Something dirt comes out of skin layer which is naturally a deadskin cell or something else does it prevent reaching skin ,my ghusl is still valid or not? and every one may have this dirt at there back of the body

Assalamualaikum I'm having a lot of doubts about wudu. Sometimes during Salah I "feel" like I passed wind or had vaginal discharge (it's chronic and happens a lot randomly) but I'm unsure. After the prayer I feel like my entire prayer is invalid. Even end up redoing wudu and prayer sometimes, but it's not always possible. Does discharge break wudu if it happens a lot due to health problems?

Assalamualaikum, What I'm about to say, I know it isn't nice to hear or anything. I am a born "Muslim". I never practiced Islam until before 2023 when I was 12-13. All was well, I felt connected to my lord and genuinely asked forgiveness for my sins. I started to slowly put on the hijab and you know, I just felt connected with my religion. Then in 2024, we moved to another city and I had stopped praying. I started commiting those sins again for that whole year. I would pray only some months when I really felt that Iman boost. Now in 2025, I promised myself to get back to my Deen. I started praying again from February and even made some goals I wanted to achieve this Ramadan. During this, I would get a lot of doubts about Islam and you know my heart felt heavy at some rules, but I concluded it's the words of Allah and I shouldn't question it. Now in Ramadan, these doubts only increased and before long, I started having negative thoughts about Allah. I questioned my faith so much and just 3-4 days ago, I have started to become arrogant to Allah (Astagfirullah) and my heart feels heavy whenever someone praises him. I know this is INCREDIBLY wrong, but this feeling isn't going away. Since when did I feel like this about Allah? NOW, I don't like that Allah calls us his servants (ASTAGFIRULLAH). I tell myself I have to be obedient and I do still pray daily so I can be an obedient servant of Allah. But idk man, my heart has now become empty and I am (ASTAGFIRULLAH) doubting Allah's existence even though there are signs Infront of me. I keep thinking of that verse, "Indeed, Allah guides whom he wills and he sends astray whom he wills." I believe I have become astray. WAY TOO FAR FROM MY RELIGION. I am aware this arrogance takes me out of the fold of Islam and so I repeat the shahada and ask Allah to take away this disgusting arrogance. I try to remember my humble origins but nothing is of help. Today, I felt like I couldn't feel Allah's presence in that way, you know. I cannot focus on anything and my heart feels empty, lost and unaffected in some way. Please, Please tell me I can still be redeemed. I don't want Allah to abandon me and nor do I want this disgusting arrogance.

I hope if someone can prove Islam to me (and to anyone who reads this) in a way that is based on facts, way that applies to human logic and can't be denied. It is well-known that most religious people are having a happy life, and I wish to have one too, but which religion is the most logical? or is Islam the absolute truth?

If the Qur'an, as it claims, is a linguistic miracle inimitable by mankind or jinn, then how can it quote anyone. Let me put it with examples: In Surah Taha (from verse 25), the Prophet Musa (ﷺ) says the following in response to Allah giving him the mission to preach to the Pharaoh: > قَالَ رَبِّ ٱشْرَحْ لِى صَدْرِى ٢٥ وَيَسِّرْ لِىٓ أَمْرِى ٢٦ وَٱحْلُلْ > عُقْدَةًۭ مِّن لِّسَانِى ٢٧ يَفْقَهُوا۟ قَوْلِى ٢٨ وَٱجْعَل لِّى > وَزِيرًۭا مِّنْ أَهْلِى ٢٩ هَـٰرُونَ أَخِى ٣٠ ٱشْدُدْ بِهِۦٓ أَزْرِى > ٣١ وَأَشْرِكْهُ فِىٓ أَمْرِى ٣٢ كَىْ نُسَبِّحَكَ كَثِيرًۭا ٣٣ > وَنَذْكُرَكَ كَثِيرًا ٣٤ إِنَّكَ كُنتَ بِنَا بَصِيرًۭا But these verses have rhyme, rhythm, and of course it does, it's the Qur'an. But they are the words of the Prophet Musa (ﷺ), so did he speak in such incredible eloquence? Of course here, I suppose, he didn't speak Arabic, so Allah can just paraphrase it from the ancient Egyptian language into Arabic. But then what about the whole starting of Surah al Jinn. It's some Jinn during the time of the Prophet Muhammad (ﷺ) speaking, and that too with eloquence. Now, since they were at the time of the Prophet (ﷺ), understood the Qur'an's Arabic, they probably did speak in Arabic, right? So would this disprove the Qur'an? The Jinn that spoke, spoke before the Surah was revealed obviously. I hope I am able to explain it properly, but if these were words of a Jinn, that is also in the Qur'an, wouldn't this show that a Jinn produced verses similar to the Qur'an? Arab poets were struggling to find a single word that could be improved in the Qur'anic text, so it's pretty impressive for a Jinn to do multiple verses. And I don't think Allah would paraphrase this, since if it was in Arabic, then Allah shouldn't, because what He says is absolutely true in all respects. If you say that the Jinn did speak in a language other than Arabic, then is there any Hadith that proved Jinn did use a language outside Arabic in Arabia. Or perhaps Jinns lived long enough that they would still resort to some ancient dead language, but still understood Arabic alongside because Arabic was used amongst the humankind. So this can be disproven if there is some hadith to show one of the following: 1. A direct response: A Hadith where the Prophet (ﷺ) answers this questions (pretty unlikely I suppose) 2. A Hadith where the Prophet (ﷺ) says that Jinns knew other languages outside Arabic. 3. A Hadith saying Jinns lived forever 4. A Hadith saying Jinns lived for a very long time It would be better for the higher one in the list to be answered, as the higher ones can be used as a more plausible explanation. If there is any other way to disprove this "Jinn's words in the Qur'an" claim, it would be fine as well as long as it's explained. I hope to get an answer to this question, because I can't, so thanks to whoever can help.

I usually wash mani or madhi with my hands before putting the clothes in washing machine. But what happened is my mother one day she put all my undergarments in the washing machine and they are stained with mani, Mazi and some urine also. After the clothes washed I see the traces of Mazi. I am certain that it was traces of Mazi. And I also have seen the substances of mani. Now I know that sprinkling water on Mazi is sufficient. And mani is pure. But I am getting this doubt because of urine. Because usually what I do is when some mani and Mazi is discharged I do not do istinja after urinating. So the problem is urine drops make the mani and Mazi impure. Doubt is that overwhelming with water makes those traces of mani and Mazi pure or not? As I seen the substances of mani and assuming that because of urine drops it becomes impure and because it is not removed from the cloth and still impure. Please guide me in this matter.

Why did classical scholars, particularly in the Shafi'i madhab, allow non-scriptural disbelievers to be compelled into Islam for the purpose of intercourse? As stated in Shu’ab al-Imān 3/12: "وإنما ذكرت هذه المسألة رواية في الأمة الوثنية. فقد يجوز أن يكون فيها خاصة دون العبد. لأنه لا يمكن سيدها الاستمتاع بها مع وثنيتها، فيجبر بها على الإسلام، ليتمكن من الاستمتاع، كما يجبر الرجل امرأته الذمية على الغسل من الحيض لتهيأ." [Source](https://shamela.ws/book/18567/1398) I can share other Shafi'i scholars who argue the same thing, and if i recall correctly imam shafi'i himself too. Additionally, how can some argue against forcing conversion while maintaining an inconsistent methodology? JazakAllahu khairan.

My question is straightforward, If Abdullah ibn Abi Sarh "Genuinly" had a serious doubt that caused him leaving Islam (i.e he wasn't a hypocrite but a true believer) Then how can we justify that his generous and unbiased conclusion which made him leave Islam, still to be called apostasy and treason. We know that he was a scriber of Quran then the incident occured that he was allowed to add some words into quranic ayats by the permission of prophet Muhammad (saw) himself, isn't it a real and thought provoking on itself to doubt Islam and the prophet, I would be realistic and honest if were in place of abdullah ibn sar I would have done the same thing. If you come with the answer that because the allowance of wording in Quran didn't really had that much siginficance in the meaning because at the end of the day it should reflect according to whole notion of Quran and doesn't contridict the quran, then I would ask isn't the Quran already the part of ( Al- kitaab) and its written and recorded along with other ( suhoof and previous scriptures) in "Lawhe Mahfooz", so hence, it must not have any other human's aditional wordings and additions to begin with.

Assalamu alaikum, i couldn't find any answer to my question about the validity of my salah. Today while praying duhr i had doubts when getting up from sujood when i said rabanna wa lakal hamd i had doubts about accidentally saying rabanna wa lakeel hamd so i said it again and after i said it i realized that i did say it correctly the first time so i dont know if my prayer is valid since i deliberately said it two times but at the same time it was a doubt so i dont know what to do.

After completing Esha salah in congregation I came out from the mosque. Then I started to have doubt about my Tasleem. I am having a feeling that I haven't completed Tasleem. Should I repeat my salah? What to do in this kind of situation?

As-salam alaykum, I couldn't find anything that answered my questions so here's what happened. today while I was praying salat al dhur during the last rakah i had doubts wether i made two sajdahs or one sajdah at first i thought it was just wiswas so i ignored it but i started thinking about it and i realized i might have i actually made one sajdah. I was already in the second tashahhud so I made sujood al sahw right before taslim do I have to pray my salah again?

It is narrated in The History of al-Tabari Al-Tabari, Vol. 2, p. 11, p. 11: >It is related that Noah prayed that Ham's color would be changed and that his descendants would be slaves to the children of Shem and Japheth." It is narrated in The History of al-Tabari Al-Tabari, Al-Tabari, Vol. 2, p. 21, p. 21: >"It is related by the father of Damrah b. Rabi'ah-Ibn 'Ata' that Ham begat all those who are black and curly-haired, while Japheth begat all those who are full-faced with small eyes, and Shem begat everyone who is handsome of face with beautiful hair. Noah prayed that the hair of Ham's descendants would not grow beyond their ears, and that wherever his descendants met the children of Shem, the latter would enslave them." What is the authenticity of these narrations? Likewise, are there any authentic passages within the Islamic discourse that relate a message that African folks are destined to be enslaved and cursed?

It is found in https://quran.com/en/al-hajj/46 : >Have they not travelled throughout the land so their hearts may reason, and their ears may listen? Indeed, it is not the eyes that are blind, but it is the hearts in the chests that grow blind. From the explanations I've seen online, the idea of a heart thinking is meant to be considered metaphorically, however, I find this argument to not be plausible. Firstly, in Q22:46, it mentions the physical location of the heart here: **the hearts in the chests**. If such a notion was to be taken metaphorically, why is the location of the heart mentioned? Secondly, the idea of the heart being the center of thought was a notion commonly found during that time and place. Why would the Quran use what would be considered faulty terminology?

What is the fiqh on coerced marriages across the 4 sunni muslim schools of thought? Some questions to consider would be: can a virgin child who is coerced into marriage divorce herself on the basis of the coercion? Can a virgin adult be coerced into a marriage?

It is narrated: >The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “The one who repents from sin is like one who never sinned.” And the one who did not sin cannot be punished. Does this mean that if someone is found guilty of murder or rape, but he repents prior to the trial, he can be let off without any form of discretionary punishment? What if it so happens that the forgiveness prior to the trial was completely insincere or worse yet, there is a great chance that person may commit the crime again?

I have some questions regarding the story of Safi Ibn Sayyad. It is narrated in: https://sunnah.com/bukhari:1354 , we understand that this young boy named Safi ibn Sayyad was accused of possibly being the Dajjal. The rasool (swl) considered this as a mere possibility, yet, I find many discrepancies with this. For starters, at this current time, this boy was from Medina, yet, the rasool (swl) had stated that one of the criteria of the Dajjal's character, is that he cannot enter Mecca or Medina. Secondly, in the following narration: https://sunnah.com/muslim:2920a , we find that the Dajjal will not emerge until the conquering of Constantinople, yet, the rasool (swl) had considered the possibility that Safi ibn Sayyad could have been the Dajjal? Even though he was from Medina, despite the fact Constantinople had not been conquered, wouldn't such criteria immediately disprove the fact that he is the Dajjal? Thirdly, in the following narration: https://sunnah.com/muslim:2942a , we find that a group of former Christians had seen the Dajjal chained down on another island far from Arabia, yet, suspicions were cast on Safi Ibn Sayyad of being the Dajjal? We know that for example, Umar RA and his family swore by Allah that Safi Ibn Sayyad was the Dajjal and Umar RA swore in front of the rasool (swl) and he had remained silent, showing that the rasool (swl) felt it may be possible too. Yet, all these findings and signs about the Dajjal completely point out the contrary to Safi ibn Sayyad being the Dajjal. How could it even be possible that the great companions, let alone, the rasool (swl) would even consider this a possibility? Lastly, we have the following narration: https://sunnah.com/muslim:2927c that shows that even after the death of the rasool (swl), the companions had considered this to be a possibility. How is this even possible? So many signs, prophecies, and so fourth completely pointed in an opposite direction towards Safi Ibn Sayyad being the Dajjal, yet, why and how could the rasool (swl) even consider such a possibility? I would appreciate it if someone was able to give a detailed response to all of the questions that have been aroused. This to me feels like an extremely compelling theological problem and I would like to be able to dismiss it somehow.

Assalamualaikum I have obsessive compulsive disorder. I naively believed that I said Kinayah word with the intention of divorce. Later, I had doubts about whether I had intention or not because that incident was in the symptoms of obsessive compulsive disorder. - Will this later doubt override the divorce I previously naively believed? - Will divorce have a basis of consideration like worship where later doubts cannot override the certainty at the end of the process?