Are dimmis allowed to propagate their faith?

In [this answer](https://islam.stackexchange.com/a/39757/17702) it is claimed that Non-Muslim women need a Muslim wali to get married under sharia rule: > the wali(guardian) of the Christian woman is a Muslim In a comment to it, it is claimed that Non-ahl-kitab Non-Muslim women need a wali as well: > a Muslim wali is only needed for a Muslim lady or a lady which is not of among people of the book Both these claims are surprising to me as I had never come across similar claims. It was my understanding that in matters of family law, dhimmis were mostly left to their own devices. **Question:** which madhahib (schools of law) require that a Non-Muslim woman must have a wali for getting married, and which of those require the wali to be a Muslim? --- **Remark:** The accepted answer does not offer references for the individual madhahib; if you have any, please add them as an answer.

Do Muslims get more sins for doing haram acts than non-Muslims as they are aware that it's wrong and shouldn't be done?

From my understanding, non muslims are not held accountable for finer aspects of the Law like covering one’s awrah. And it is sinful to look at a muslim’s awrah regardless of if there is desire because it is part of their body God commanded to conceal. https://seekersguidance.org/answers/fast-shafii-fiqh/is-feeding-non-muslims-during-the-day-in-ramadan-permissible/ Also, scholars permitted people to view the breasts buttocks calves and other parts of the slave woman in the marketplace. This is evidenced by reports from Ibn Umar looking at these parts as well as Abu Hanifa’s opinion. عبد الرزاق عن ابن عيينة عن عمرو بن دينار عن مجاهد قال: كنت مع ابن عمر في السوق، فأبصر بجارية تباع، فكشف عن ساقها، وصك في صدرها، وقال: اشتروا، يريهم أنه لا بآس بذلك. Mujahid said that once Abdullah Ibn Umar came to a market where some traders wanted to buy a slave girl. Ibn Umar exposed her calves, then put his hands between her breasts and shook them. Afterwards he told the traders to buy that slave girl as there was no defect in her Given these things, is the only reason it is haram for a muslim man to look at the “awrah” parts of a non muslim woman because of the fear of fitnah? Similar to how some scholars prohibited slave woman to show these parts due to a similar fear. “Asked if it is reprehensible (tukrah) for slave women to veil in public, Aḥmad b. Ḥanbal replied that a beautiful slave woman should in fact do so (idhā kānat jamīla tantaqib)” (Anchassi, O 2021, Status distinctions and sartorial difference Slavery, sexual ethics, and the social logic of veiling in Islamic law) Originally cited: Al-Kawsaj (d. 251/865), Masāʾil al-imām Aḥmad b. Ḥanbal wa Iṣḥāq b. Rāhawayh, 10 vols.(Medina: al-Jāmiʿa al-islāmiyya, 1425/2004), 9: 4706; Abū Bakr al-Khallāl (d. 311/923), Aḥkām al-nisāʾ, ed. ʿUmar ʿAbd al-Munʿim Salīm (Beirut: Muʾassasat al-rayyān, 1423/2002), 60–61. Any insight into the legal rationale for prohibiting men from looking at non muslim women (hair etc) would be appreciated.

I tried looking up on this and found a mixed bag of answers as they usually only mentioned for Educational purposes (Dawah) or Sightseeing in the context of understanding what you shouldn't do. But what about the intention of sightseeing for purely tourism as in like admiring the architecture, not taking part in any practice and then moving on with your day? Just to clarify, it would not be the sole intention either but just on a bucket list of places during a vacation. Is it still haram? Thank you

I live in a Smallish city, we still voted for Trump, but we have a mosque, and a few black people, and people in smaller towns are afraid to move here because they think they'll get shot in a week. We're biggish, but we still have our fair share of bigots. I've already seen a few people make nasty comments about Muslims (and various other minorities). Before the election I saw a couple that refused to eat at a restaurant until a generic middle eastern family (I didn't see any outward indication of their faith) was removed. (In that story the couple was removed, not the middle eastern family) With the election of the Republican candidate, I believe Bigots will be emboldened, and more inclined to voice their opinions in an aggressive manor. I've read about strategies for an outside observer to intervene in a nonviolent way (Place yourself between victim and harasser, don't directly acknowledge harasser, make small talk, walk away from situation with victim, etc). I feel I may have to be called upon to protect a Muslim individual from harassment. While I have no formal training in this sort of conflict resolution, I don't want to have to say to myself someday "I just sat on the sidelines while this happened" I realize that there are multiple branches of Islam, but I'm just looking for high level summarization. I know there are *some* rules about contact between men and women that basically boils down to "No Touching", but I don't know if that's all. I don't want to offend or be ignorant of someone's religion. I don't want to put my arm around their shoulder if it's going to be taken as a religious slight. I don't want to make eye contact if it's weird. Would it be possible to provide a summary of the rules?

As an answer to the Quranic challenge "if you are in doubt of what We have revealed to Our Messenger, then produce one chapter like it", an Arabic christian wrote a book called "the true Furqan". Now, on Islam Stack Exchange there is a list of 6 criteria that must be met before any book can be said to be possibly answering that challenge. They are: 1-a deep and profound affect on the heart, which moves many to convert on the spot.2-divine revelation of scientific knowledge unknown by man untill much later. 3-perfect historical accuracy.4-an intricate, beautiful ring structure. 5-miraculous revelation which, as to the symbols, wisdom, and text, is ongoing. 6-being the most beautiful book known to man. I am no expert, but I have been told several times that the Injil of Isa meets each of these standards. Would someone please read the Injil and explain to me whether this is so?

Suppose a kafir child at age of 15 or 16 heard and studied Islam, but did not enter and they were a stubborn disbeliever. Will they be punished if they die at age of 17? Will they enter Heaven?

As-Salamu 'Alaykum brothers, I have a pressing Question to ask in regards to the following verses of the Quran: > "O believers! Do not take your parents and siblings as trusted allies if they choose disbelief over belief. And whoever of you does so, they are the ˹true˺ wrongdoers" 9:23 > "And We have commanded people to ˹honour˺ their parents. Their mothers bore them through hardship upon hardship, and their weaning takes two years. So be grateful to Me and your parents. To Me is the final return."31:14 > "But if they pressure you to associate with Me what you have no knowledge of,1 do not obey them. Still keep their company in this world courteously, and follow the way of those who turn to Me ˹in devotion˺. Then to Me you will ˹all˺ return, and then I will inform you of what you used to do." 31:15 There are many other verses too that pertain to this matter. But my situation is that my Father is not a Muslim and he is a civil servant in the Airforce, and my Wife's Father is a polytheist (a Christian) and he works for a defense contractor. Doesn't this mean that I am not allowed to love them? there are so many other verses that talk about this, but I'm also confused because Allah also commands us to love our parents even if they are disbelievers. Please help me figure this out.

I actually have two youtube channels and I make movies on the games such as roblox and basically most of the viewers are non muslims. So is it permissible for me to take such cartoon film movies which does not include any adult content but moral lessons and typical love stories? Also if I film a video on christmas or any non muslim tradition but I'm not practicing it, will I be punished for this act? Please let me know... Jazakallah... By the way, the link of my channel: https://www.youtube.com/@CoxoSparkle

I know that many questions have been asked about marrying spouses that are "believers," but who are not Muslims, and that the Qur'an does make it permissible as long as they are devout believers, etc. **However, I was wondering if a Mormon/LDS woman is considered a "believer."** Mormons do consider themselves Christians, and they are some of the most devout religious people I know. They don't drink alcohol (or even coffee or tea because of the addictive qualities of caffeine), don't have pre-marital sex (they actually follow it), they fast every month, they pay tithes/alms, pray frequently, make covenants with God, dress modestly, place a HUGE emphasis on the family, don't curse, don't watch R-rated movies, read from the scriptures morning and night, constantly serve their communities, etc. She is full of light, hope, faith, purity, integrity, happiness, etc. I found that Mormons had many similarities with Islam, actually. But I wasn't sure if they are considered "believers" by our standards because they don't accept the traditional Christian "Trinity" since they believe God and Christ are separate individuals... so I wasn't sure if that makes them idolaters. I love this woman a lot and she loves me a lot as well. We are both very respectful of each other's religions, and know that we support each other in staying true to our respective faiths. Also, I know that she will help me raise up a righteous family with wholesome and Godly values.

I was raised a Christian. But I have read the Koran and believe in Allah and His Messenger. Since I also follow the teachings of Jesus, am I still considered a non-believer?

Last night I was reading answers on islam. Stack exchange and abu hayyan quotes Hasan al basri. > Al-Hassan al basri said: "If a man discovers that his (christian or Jewish) wife is committing an immoral act, he should divorce her." https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/86434/meaning-of-the-word-al-muhsanat-in-verse-55-according-to-the-zahiri-school It appears from the opinion of al Hasan al basri that punishment for dhimmi adulterers is not rajm. Hence my question what's the punishment for dhimmis who commit adultery?

Suppose a person studies Islam with a sincere heart, but does not find the arguments in favor of Islam genuinely convincing, and dies as a non-Muslim. Does Islam differentiate between such an individual, and someone who denies Islam due to his caprices, or someone who does not even bother studying Islam? Are all three cases the same from the perspective of Islam wrt. their fate in the afterlife, i.e., are they all destined to go hell?

How can we know whether the followers of a certain religion can become Dhimmis? For example: In the hypothetical case that any neo-Pagan movement ever becomes large enough in a Muslim country or that a country that already has a large neo-Pagan community (like in Europe) ever becomes Muslim majority could they attain the same status as Zoroastrians and other non-People of the Book attained? And would it make any difference if the movement itself claims to be monotheistic or henotheistic rather than outright polytheistic?

> Abu Huraira reported Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) as saying: Do not greet the Jews and the Christians before they greet you and when you meet any one of them on the roads force him to go to the narrowest part of it. Is this an authentic Hadith? Can someone explain this to me, why did Prophet Muhammad (SAW) say this?

I know from other questions on this site that Muslim men can marry Jewish or Christian women , that Muslim women can't marry non-Muslims , and why there's a difference in marriage law for Muslim men and women . I've also learned a good deal about temporary marriages , but this question is not about that. My question is, can Muslim men marry women who are not Ahl-al-Kitab? That is, can a Muslim man marry a woman who is either atheist, deist, polytheist, pantheist, Zoroastrian, or anything else I haven't thought of? Since Hanafi is the school of Fiqh with the greatest number of adherents, I'd specifically like an answer from that perspective. But if you could give a quick note about how widely-accepted your answer is from the perspective of the other schools, that would bring your answer from good to great.

Is a Harbi a person who's at war with Muslims? Or does merely living in a non Muslim state with no treaty make one a Harbi? If a person did not do anything to harm the Muslims can he be considered a Harbi?

Why did classical scholars, particularly in the Shafi'i madhab, allow non-scriptural disbelievers to be compelled into Islam for the purpose of intercourse? As stated in Shu’ab al-Imān 3/12: "وإنما ذكرت هذه المسألة رواية في الأمة الوثنية. فقد يجوز أن يكون فيها خاصة دون العبد. لأنه لا يمكن سيدها الاستمتاع بها مع وثنيتها، فيجبر بها على الإسلام، ليتمكن من الاستمتاع، كما يجبر الرجل امرأته الذمية على الغسل من الحيض لتهيأ." [Source](https://shamela.ws/book/18567/1398) I can share other Shafi'i scholars who argue the same thing, and if i recall correctly imam shafi'i himself too. Additionally, how can some argue against forcing conversion while maintaining an inconsistent methodology? JazakAllahu khairan.

The hadith says: > " A group of Jews entered upon the Prophet and said, > "As-Samu-Alaikum." (i.e. death be upon you). I understood it and said, > "Wa-Alaikum As-Samu wal-la'n. (death and the curse of Allah be Upon > you)." Allah's Apostle said "Be calm, O 'Aisha! Allah loves that on, > should be kind and lenient in all matters." I said, "O Allah's > Apostle! Haven't you heard what they (the Jews) have said?" Allah's > Apostle said "I have (already) said (to them) "And upon you ! " Here when our Prophet (saw) says "And upon you" what does he exactly mean here... just like how the arrogant jews says "Death be upon you" does our Prophet mean the same back at them. If yes, wouldn't it contradict when he said "Be calm, O 'Aisha! Allah loves that on, should be kind and lenient in all matters." If yes, does it question the integrity of the hadith. Please can someone help me understand. Jazakallah