There's a range of translations of Quran 54:17 ; here are some examples: > And in truth We have made the Qur'an easy to remember; but is there any that remembereth? -- M. M. Pickthall > We have made it easy to learn lessons from the Quran. Is there anyone who would receive admonition? -- Wahiduddin Khan > And indeed, We have made the Qur'an easy for direction and guidance, but is there anyone who will take advice? -- Dr. Mohammad Tahir-ul-Qadri > We have really made this Qur'an easy (to understand)! Is anyone there to heed? -- Dr. Munir Munshey It seems there's two major interpretations of this ayat: - The Qur'an is easy to understand. This could be in order to help everyone, despite their level of education. I've also seen it argued that the repetitive nature of the Qur'an is evidence to support this interpretation. > The Qur'an's guidance for man’s conduct are plain and easy to understand and act upon... > ...Masha Allah, how easy Allah has made it for us to memorise the Qur’an and increase our rewards. -- Productive Muslim - Admonishion in the Qur'an is easy to understand. "Do good and get closer to paradise. Do bad and get closer to punishment". > Some people have misconstrued the words yassarnal- Quran to mean that the Quran is an easy Book; no knowledge is required to understand it so much so that a person even without the knowledge of the Arabic language, can write a commentary on it, and can deduce any injunctions he likes from its verses independent of the Hadith and Islamic Law, whereas the context in which these words occur, indicates that they are meant to make the people realize this: One means of the admonition are the dreadful torments that descended upon the rebellious nations, and the other means is this Quran, which guides you to the right path by argument and instruction. -- Islamic Studies It's unclear which is correct. (And I cannot exclude the possibility that both of these interpretations are simultaneously correct.) **Question**: Should Qur'an 54:17 be interpreted as meaning the Qur'an is intended to be simple to understand? Answering this is probably going to require familiarity with the Arabic: > وَلَقَدْ يَسَّرْنَا الْقُرْآنَ لِلذِّكْرِ فَهَلْ مِن مُّدَّكِرٍ

I have a little but not much knowledge of Arabic. Although **God** is called `Al-Karim, I hear the invocation Ya Karim, but I never heard the invocation Ya Al-Karim or Ya-l-Karim. Same for other names of **God**: the definite article disappears from the vocative. Just as it would in English: May the Lord have mercy on us vs. O Lord, have mercy on us` One big exception: `Ya Allah, which I've heard lots. (With definite separation between the end of Ya and the start of Allah, there are three different "a" sounds. I'm not talking about yalla as in let's go`.) Now I see that when my English translation of the Quran has `O God, the original is Allahuma`. I don't know anything like this construction, where someone is addressed by tacking "-uma" at the end or something similar. Though as I say, I'm not at all knowledgeable in Arabic and might easily have missed something. So is there a difference? Is `Ya Allah in the Quran and I missed it? Is Allahuma preferred? Is Allahuma` a unique construction?

I am considering a non-Arabic (Slavic) name for my baby: Damir / Daamir. In Slavic usage, this name is reported to have a meaning related to peace, and in Turkish it may have meanings related to heart (or similar positive connotations). My concern arises when the name is written or pronounced in Arabic -> ضامِر It closely resembles an Arabic word that may carry a negative or undesirable meaning, such as “slim” or “weak.” Because of this, I am worried about whether choosing such a name would be Islamically permissible. My questions are: Is it permissible in Islam to use a non-Arabic name for a child if, when pronounced or written in Arabic, it resembles an Arabic word with an undesirable meaning? Does the Arabic resemblance have any legal or religious effect on the permissibility of the name? Are there any guidelines regarding non-Arabic names whose meanings differ across languages? I want to make sure the name is appropriate and does not carry any negative implications Islamically. Guidance would be appreciated.

Who was the first non-primary Arabaphone Qadi قاضي and how was his Arabic language proficiency qualified? What's the oldest extant Arabic language proficiency exam used for the purposes of executing Islamic law?

The Qur'an is protected by Allah: > Indeed, it is We who sent down the Qur'an and indeed, We will be its guardian. -- Qur'an 15:9 This does not say the Arabic language is also protected. Consequently, it seems theoretical possible that, over time, the Arabic language could become extinct (see List of Extinct Languages ), or evolve into a language that cannot be used to read the Qur'an. In fact, I've heard that Qur'anic Arabic is already considerably different from day-to-day Arabic. However, it seems odd to have a holy and protected book without the means to read and understand it. This suggests that the Arabic language might also be protected. **Question**: Does Allah also protect the Arabic language?

What is the universal criteria to separate words in Arabic of Quran? My computer program uses "empty space character" to separate words and count them. Is that "always" correct rule for this? For example is this "va huva" one word or two words in 9:129? وَهُوَ

I actually have 3 questions. They are:- - First question: What is the meaning of the word سماء in the context of the Qur'an? - Second question: Can the word سماوات be used as a replacement for the word سماء ? - What are the difference between the words سماء and السماء الدنيا? If there's any problem in my question please inform me. Thanks!

In this Iranian website it is stated that the word کَوکَب means star in the holy Quran: > (فَلَمَّا جَنَّ عَلَیْهِ‌ اللَّیْلُ رَای‌ کَوْکَباً) «چون شب او را فرا گرفت ستاره‌ای دید.» Surat al-An'am, verse 6. Translation of the Persian translation (pardon me please if a little incorrect): When the night cast on him, he saw a star. But doesn't star translate to نَجم and اَختَر in Arabic? We have also verses that contain نَجم with the meaning of star: > (وَ النَّجْمِ‌ اِذا هَوی‌) قسم به ستاره آن زمان که فرود می آید (Swear to star, when it comes down) Surat al-Najm, verse 1. I also searched for مِرّیخ in Arabic Wikipedia : > المِرِّيخ أو الكوكب الأحمر هو الكوكب الرابع من حيث البعد عن الشمس في النظام الشمسي... Ttanslation: Mars or the red planet is the fourth planet in the aspect of distance from the Sun in the solar system... کَوکَب clearly means planet here. I am confused. Does کَوکَب mean star or planet in the holy Quran? Maybe it meant star at the time of Prophet Muhammad (P.B.U.H)? But there is also a Quran verse (in the surah al-Yusuf) that کَوکَب sounds planet to me in! > اِذ قالَ یوسُفُ لِأبیهِ یا اَبَتی إنّی رَأیتُ اَحَدَ عَشَرَ کَوکَبا وَالشَّمسَ وَالقَمَرَ رَأیتُهُم لی ساجِدین Translation: When Joseph told his father: "oh father, I saw (in my dream) that eleven planets(?) and the Sun and the Moon were bowing down to me". I can't think کَوکَب means star here! Because the Sun is a star itself and also, it's always the planets that come after the Sun. The verse also calls the Moon.

The 4th verse of Surah al-Yusuf has two verbs رَاَیتُ which means I saw: > اِذ قالَ یوسُفُ لِأَبیهِ یا اَبَتی إِنّی **رَأَیتُ** اَحَدَ عَشَرَ کَوکَبا وَالشَّمسَ وَالقَمَرَ **رَأَیتُ**هُم لی ساجِدین Translation: When Joseph told his father, oh my father! I just saw eleven stars and the Sun and the Moon bowed down to me. Why is there an excessive رَأَیتُ here?

We know that when we speak about more than one of a thing in Arabic we should pluralize the noun just like in English. For example, three houses (ثلاثة منازل instead of ثلاثة منزل). But in 12:4 (Surah al-Yusuf, verse 4) we have احد عشر کوکب instead of احد عشر کواکب: > اِذ قالَ یوسُفُ لِأبیهِ یا اَبَتی إنّی رَأیتُ اَحَدَ عَشَرَ کَوکَبا وَ الشَّمسَ وَ القَمَرَ رَأیتُهُم لی ساجِدین Why does that not follow the rule?

Some explanatory books, such as Nayl al-Awtar by Imam al-Shawkani, Mirqat al-Mafatih by al-Mulla Ali al-Qari, and the explanation of al-Mishkat by al-Tibi, have interpreted the hadith of Safiyyah (radi Allahu 'anha), when she said that the Prophet (salla Allahu 'alayhi wa sallam) "bana biha", to mean that he built a new tent because of her or with her. Is it valid to interpret the hadith of Aisha (radi Allahu 'anha): "bana bi Rasul Allah", to mean that he built a tent because of her or with her? My question is: is this interpretation acceptable from the perspective of the Arabic language?

I know the Arabic script, and can read the Quran. But I have no understanding of what I'm reading. What is the best route to learning Classical Arabic? Most of the guides I've seen (in the UK) deal only with modern Arabic. Should I learn this first, or can I go straight into learning the Classical Arabic of the Quran? My main reason for learning Quranic Arabic, is that its poetic force simply does not come through in English. The translations I have looked at are, poetically speaking, dull. Which is a pity. And I don't see that changing any time soon.

That's it. Not much more detail in the question. If the answer could include usage in a sentence, that would be helpful.

Salam aleikum, Regarding elongation marks: Do scholars allow to have different categories of elongation marks in Quran ? In terms of pronounciation, it is pronounced exactly the same. What I mean by it in an example (Pay attention to ٱلۡعَٰلَمِينَ): Surah Al Fatiha, Verse 2: https://m.wordofallah.com/1 and https://quran.com/1 > ٱلۡحَمۡدُ لِلَّهِ رَبِّ ٱلۡعَٰلَمِينَ https://myislam.org/surah-fatiha-translation/ and my Quran home: > الْحَمْدُ لِلَّهِ رَبِّ الْعَالَمِينَ After the ‘Ayn there is a small Alif in the first one and in the second one there is a big Alif. Is this allowed by scholars, because I taught the orthography of the bigger letters was always the same (without the harakat and the smaller elongation marks etc.).

As the title says. I know no Arabic, but want to start with learning. I am mostly looking for recommended literary works or courses. God bless.

I am an American who recently converted. But I only know English and I have a Qur'an that is English only. I have memorized most of the everyday sayings in Arabic. But I was wondering if I have to learn Arabic to be perceived as a true Muslim to Allah, instead of a hypocrite. Should I just memorize enough Arabic to learn the Qur'an or can I still pray and read the Qur'an in English and that be okay?

Assalamu aliakum. I am 12 years old. I learned to recite the Quran when I was very young. But a few years back I stopped reciting quran and now I don't know how to read Arabic, I have forgotten. I don't want to tell my parents because I am ashamed and also they will be angry with me. Is there a website where I can learn to read Arabic for free? Please help Jazakallahu Khair

Assalamu alaikum. I am learning how to read Arrabic alphabets and how to read Quran. I'm slightly confused with something: In the first verse of Sura Al-Faatiha, the spelling suggests the following reading > Bismi Allahi alrahmani alraheemi. But the actual reading that I heard from many recitations are like > Bismi-lla(h)i-lrahmani-raheem. So the 'al' was connected really fast, almost indistinguishable to my ear. And the 'i' in the end of 'alraheemi' was omitted. ____ My second example is the third verse of Al-Faatiha, which looks to me like > Maliki yawmi aldiyni But in the recitations it was like > Maliki yawmi-diyn So again 'al' was connected really fast and 'i' in the end was omitted. ____ Please help me understand the correct way to read the suras (I guess the word is tajweed), or point me toward some references. Thank you very much.

Which scholars maintain that Arabic was the language of Adam A"S?

In Surah Nisa, verse 136, Allah says: Before the first stop (jeem), Allah describes the Qur'an with "nazzala" (نَزَّلَ), while he describes the previous books with "anzala" (أَنزَلَ). Both of these come from the same root verb, nazala, which means "to descend, to go down." The first is baab two, which is a more severe form, while the second looks like the form used often when you cause something to happen (eg. make something descend). But my Arabic is rusty. What exactly is the difference of meaning of these two verbs, and what's the implication here?