There's a range of translations of Quran 54:17 ; here are some examples: > And in truth We have made the Qur'an easy to remember; but is there any that remembereth? -- M. M. Pickthall > We have made it easy to learn lessons from the Quran. Is there anyone who would receive admonition? -- Wahiduddin Khan > And indeed, We have made the Qur'an easy for direction and guidance, but is there anyone who will take advice? -- Dr. Mohammad Tahir-ul-Qadri > We have really made this Qur'an easy (to understand)! Is anyone there to heed? -- Dr. Munir Munshey It seems there's two major interpretations of this ayat: - The Qur'an is easy to understand. This could be in order to help everyone, despite their level of education. I've also seen it argued that the repetitive nature of the Qur'an is evidence to support this interpretation. > The Qur'an's guidance for man’s conduct are plain and easy to understand and act upon... > ...Masha Allah, how easy Allah has made it for us to memorise the Qur’an and increase our rewards. -- Productive Muslim - Admonishion in the Qur'an is easy to understand. "Do good and get closer to paradise. Do bad and get closer to punishment". > Some people have misconstrued the words yassarnal- Quran to mean that the Quran is an easy Book; no knowledge is required to understand it so much so that a person even without the knowledge of the Arabic language, can write a commentary on it, and can deduce any injunctions he likes from its verses independent of the Hadith and Islamic Law, whereas the context in which these words occur, indicates that they are meant to make the people realize this: One means of the admonition are the dreadful torments that descended upon the rebellious nations, and the other means is this Quran, which guides you to the right path by argument and instruction. -- Islamic Studies It's unclear which is correct. (And I cannot exclude the possibility that both of these interpretations are simultaneously correct.) **Question**: Should Qur'an 54:17 be interpreted as meaning the Qur'an is intended to be simple to understand? Answering this is probably going to require familiarity with the Arabic: > وَلَقَدْ يَسَّرْنَا الْقُرْآنَ لِلذِّكْرِ فَهَلْ مِن مُّدَّكِرٍ

My father provides us everything he can but he is verbally abusive. To a point where I have zero respect for him and zero interest in interacting with him. What does Islam say about abusive parents?

assalamualaikum My mom and dad got me into this Quran reciting school that we have to memorize the verses. I sometimes not ready to recite them to the sheikh so i cheat and read from the Quran i always repent and the next day i do it again. I’m just scared that my repentance isn’t going to be accepted. I just don’t know how to stop it. Please help me with this problem.

May I know how many surahs in the Qur'an that begins by "wa"? Ex. Wal asr, wa shams... Etc.

I'm trying to find a trustworthy online Quran school that specializes in teaching Shia Islam. I'd like to know what requirements I should check before signing up. Specifically: How can I confirm the legitimacy of the credentials of the teachers? For Tajweed and Tafseer, are there any prominent forums that adhere to the Shia school of thought? What general guidelines apply to the costs and schedules of these academies? Any suggestions or guidance in selecting the best one would be greatly valued. Alhamdulillah.

Not to cause argument, i only want to clear any misunderstandings that i may have. According to Sunnis, Fadak was inheritance, in contrast to endowment. But Al Suyuti seems to take the latter view in his tafsir. Al Suyuti comments on surah 17 verse 26: “Abu Saeed al Khudri and Abdullah Ibn Abbas narrate that when the verse relating to giving rights to kindred was revealed, the Prophet called Fatima Zahra (as) and gifted the land of Fadak to her”. - [Tafseer Dur al-Manthur, Vol. 4, page 177](https://shiapen.com/wp-content/uploads/BlogMedia/tafseer_dur_almanthur_v4_p177-1642247339.jpg)

Is it permissible for a man to marry the mother of a girl he used to have a relationship with? The relationship was in the past and involved physical touching but no penetration. I understand from [4:23](http://quran.com/4/23) that marriage to the wife's mother is permanently prohibited from the time a man enters into a marriage contract with a woman, whether he and his wife have engaged in sexual intercourse or not. The act of marriage itself gives the mother-in-law the same status as the mother. However in this case, the man never married the girl. Is her mother haram for him to marry?

The topic of death penalty for apostasy (defection form one's religion) in Islam seems to be a controversial one since many people have both positive and negative answers regarding the issue. Now, since Quran is the only source of guidance for all Muslims regardless of opinions or sects etc I wanted to know how the Quran tackles this issue if it tackles it at all. I know about the Sahih Hadith in which the Prophet of Islam clearly prescribes death for apostasy but it seems Muslims have mixed responses to it, one of them being it a "dhaeef" or weak Hadith. > **Bukhari[52:260]** "...The Prophet said, 'If somebody **(a Muslim) discards his religion, kill him.**' " The only verse from the Quran I've been able to find (allegedly) regarding apostasy is the following: > **Quran[4:89]** "They wish that you should disbelieve as they disbelieve, > and then you would be equal; therefore take not to yourselves friends > of them, until they emigrate in the way of God; then, **if they turn > their backs, take them, and slay them wherever you find them**; take not > to yourselves any one of them as friend or helper." I haven't studied the Tafseer of this verse so please forgive my nuisance. So does anyone know whether the Quran really does prescribe the death penalty like the above mentioned Hadith? If there is then the other part of my question is the following: If I was brought up as Muslim, meaning that since my childhood being a Muslim wasn't really my choice and it can be argued that it was my parents who "forced" me to be Muslim, wouldn't it be wrong to forbid me from exercising my freedom of consciousness and freedom of thoughts? The classic argument from Muslims supporting the penalty is of "treason". It is true that being a traitor to my country can bear severe consequences, possibly death or life sentence. But this is a weak argument and it can be argued that religion and country are two different things. I can never change the fact that I was born in a certain country but I **can** change my beliefs which I **wasn't born with** at all. Quran says that there is no compulsion regarding the practice of religion. > **Quran[2:256]** "There shall be no compulsion in [acceptance of] the > religion." So bottomline, what does the Quran really have to say about this issue? References of Ahadith are not welcome because no matter how authentic, they are still hearsay sayings of the prophet and prone to exaggerations or manipulations. Quran is the only source of authentic Islamic teachings. Thank you.. **Edit:** Another argument from Muslims is that everyone in the world is born a Muslim but their parents mislead them towards other religions. Thus death penalty for apostasy is justified. This argument is a foolish one, has absolutely no logical or natural basis and impossible to be true.

Asalamulaykum Warahmatulahi Wabarakatuh! In Surah Al-Mu'minun (https://quran.com/al-muminun) , the first 11 ayats or so speak about the characteristics of the believers and how they are to inherit the Firdaws. My question here is, what about the believers who have repented from doing evils mentioned here? what about kafirs who converted to Islam? Are they still eligible for such a reward? Jazakalakhair!

First of all, I would like to thank in advance for answering in the most kindest way. And i apologize for making my questions so big. Just wanted to let you know where i'm coming from. I have heard that previously during Imam Malik's time, some slave women were walking around or getting out of their homes bare breasted. He had strongly condemned this practice due to his understanding of the Quran/Sunnah as per this narration: > Kitaab Al-Jami‘ of Al-Imam Ibn Abi Zayd Al-Qayrawani Al-Maliki (died > 386 AH): He said, "He (i.e. Al-Imam Malik ibn Anas) strongly > disapproved of the behaviour of the slave women of Madinah in going > out uncovered above the lower garment." He said, "I have spoken to the > Sultan about it, but I have not received a reply." He said, "Beat the > slave women if they do that." I am aware that slave women had a relaxed awrah compared to the free women as per the differing opinions of the various schools of thought due to their work in servile environments and veiling was prohibited as a social status indicator but in case of **fitnah** or **harassment** or **fear of trouble** they are supposed to cover themselves up as free women have to do. I am also aware that in some point in history, there were practices of slave women being **paraded bare breasted** for attracting the highest bidders or buyers. Also I understand that a seller can adorn their slave women for attracting buyers similar to how a woman is adorned for marriage. I understand that Islam humanizes slaves by granting them certain rights, emphasizing their emancipation, and encouraging them to be treated like family members—with dignity, kindness, and respect. Based on my understanding of the commentaries from various schools of thought, even during the inspection process in slave markets at the time of the Prophet and his companions, the environment was supposedly controlled, with minimal exposure encouraged unless absolutely necessary, and only with the genuine intention to buy could you look or touch upto some extent (over clothing in Umar R.A's case), touching prohibited in the presence of lust. (please correct me if i'm wrong). **My Question is as follows:** - Was bare chested display for ***auctions*** or ***convenience*** or ***parading*** them bare chested for attracting the highest bidders, is that islamic or buyers islamically sanctioned (haram or halal)? Or was it just a corrupt practice that the masters used to do to exploit their slave women for commercial purposes or personal benefits? If it is halal, why? It spreads fitnah, encourages lustful intentions,objectifies and exploits slave women, public indecency, strips off their dignity, violates modesty rules etc which is quite contrary to inspection which usually happens for practical reasons out of necessity as opposed to lustful intentions. Also please answer this as well if possible Question regarding Slave Women Inspection Limits in the marketplace Thanks!

If husband says talaq talaq talaq three times in one sitting will it be considered as three talaqs or counted as one as talaq in quran is to be given by keeping gaps or iddath.and he has repeated same in past on call uttering talaq three times..kindly guide as per quran n sunnah

Was Ubayy Ibn Ka'b a part of the Uthmanic committee along with Zayd Ibn Thabit, if so, then what narrations can we refer to?

This may be a stupid question but I’m new on my journey and was just wondering how each page of the Kitab fits its ayats so cleanly that no ayat continues onto the next page? Each page ends and starts with a new ayat. How was this organized?

According to the Qur'an or Hadith, is it permissible for a Muslim to lie in some circumstances? If so, under what circumstance may a Muslim lie?

What does Allah mean when He says: > Have they not considered how Allāh begins creation and then repeats it? Indeed that, for Allāh, is easy. (29:19) I understand that He originated creation. But what is meant by, > "and then repeats it"? How have scholars interpreted this?

It says the earth was created in two days. And later on in the next verse it says four days? Keep in mind the total duration of heavens and earth creation is six days. So did the earth take up 2 days out of 6 or 4 days? Specifically what is the meaning of the verse below about the four days. **Verses:** > ۞ قُلْ أَئِنَّكُمْ لَتَكْفُرُونَ بِٱلَّذِى خَلَقَ ٱلْأَرْضَ فِى يَوْمَيْنِ وَتَجْعَلُونَ لَهُۥٓ أَندَادًۭا ۚ ذَٰلِكَ رَبُّ ٱلْعَـٰلَمِينَ > > “Say (O Muhammad): Do you verily disbelieve in Him Who created the earth in **two Days**? And you set up rivals (in worship) with Him? That is the Lord of the ‘Aalameen (mankind, jinn and all that exists). > > وَجَعَلَ فِيهَا رَوَٰسِىَ مِن فَوْقِهَا وَبَـٰرَكَ فِيهَا وَقَدَّرَ فِيهَآ أَقْوَٰتَهَا فِىٓ أَرْبَعَةِ أَيَّامٍۢ سَوَآءًۭ لِّلسَّآئِلِينَ > > He placed therein (i.e. the earth) firm mountains from above it, and He blessed it, and measured therein its sustenance (for its dwellers) in **four Days** equal (i.e. all these four ‘days’ were equal in the length of time) for all those who ask (about its creation). > > ثُمَّ ٱسْتَوَىٰٓ إِلَى ٱلسَّمَآءِ وَهِىَ دُخَانٌۭ فَقَالَ لَهَا وَلِلْأَرْضِ ٱئْتِيَا طَوْعًا أَوْ كَرْهًۭا قَالَتَآ أَتَيْنَا طَآئِعِينَ > > Then He rose over (Istawa) towards the heaven when it was smoke, and said to it and to the earth: ‘Come both of you willingly or unwillingly.’ They both said: ‘We come willingly.’ > > فَقَضَىٰهُنَّ سَبْعَ سَمَـٰوَاتٍۢ فِى يَوْمَيْنِ وَأَوْحَىٰ فِى كُلِّ سَمَآءٍ أَمْرَهَا ۚ وَزَيَّنَّا ٱلسَّمَآءَ ٱلدُّنْيَا بِمَصَـٰبِيحَ وَحِفْظًۭا ۚ ذَٰلِكَ تَقْدِيرُ ٱلْعَزِيزِ ٱلْعَلِيمِ > > Then He completed and finished from their creation (as) seven heavens in **two Days** and He made in each heaven its affair. And We adorned the nearest (lowest) heaven with lamps (stars) to be an adornment as well as to guard (from the devils by using them as missiles against the devils). Such is the Decree of Him, the All-Mighty, the All-Knower” > > - [Fussilat 41:9-12](https://quran.com/41/9-12)

Sahih Al-Bukhari 3508: The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "If somebody claims to be the son of any other than his real father knowingly, he but disbelieves in Allah, and if somebody claims to belong to some folk to whom he does not belong, let such a person take his place in the (Hell) Fire." I find the second part problematic: *"and if somebody claims to belong to some folk to whom he does not belong, let such a person take his place in the (Hell) Fire."* In the Qur'an Kerim, it states clearly: **"Indeed, We have dignified the children of Adam, carried them on land and sea, granted them good and lawful provisions, and privileged them far above many of Our creatures."** Qur'an Kerim 17:70 Further a hadith confirms this: *“Verily, **Allah has removed from you the pride of the time of ignorance, with its boasting of ancestors,** for one can only be a righteous believer or a miserable evildoer. All of the people are the children of Adam, and Adam was created from dust.”* - Source: Sunan al-Tirmidhī 3955 (Grade: Sahih (authentic) according to Al-Albani.) According to this Qur'an Kerim Ayah and the Al-Tirmidhi hadith: You, me, all of us are Children of The Prophet Adam SAWS or 'Children of Adam' which means: I can clearly claim to be of any ethnicity: Arab, Chinese, Kurdish, Turkish, European, Malawi etc. because **we are all One Tribe.** And who knows except Allah SWT who was yours or mine ancestor millennia ago. Also, there is a reason that all of us, Muslims and all others are called Brothers and Sisters in Humanity for a reason. Most probably our ethnicities changed through ancestry and time. So, *"and if somebody claims to belong to some folk to whom he does not belong, let such a person take his place in the (Hell) Fire."* This part of that first hadith seems problematic since it clearly contradicts Qur'an Honourable in this aspect. And rejecting Qur'an Kerim is also an Act of Kufr. Since I'm kind of puzzled with this, could you resolve this question for me. Thanks and Selam,

In Quran, Why Allah has repeated again and again for pondering over Quran.

I am tyring to buy a quran without diacritics / no tashkeel. So far no luck!

I actually have 3 questions. They are:- - First question: What is the meaning of the word سماء in the context of the Qur'an? - Second question: Can the word سماوات be used as a replacement for the word سماء ? - What are the difference between the words سماء and السماء الدنيا? If there's any problem in my question please inform me. Thanks!