I've noticed I've been saying "DAAleen" instead of "Daalleen" even though I know there was a shaddah but I don't end up pronouncing it well enough. Can anyone who speaks arabic confirm if it changes the meaning or not? I tried to see with google translate, removing the shaddah doesn't change it although putting spaces between Daa and leen does (though I'm not sure I pause enough for it to sound like two different words).

Assalamu walaikum,I've been searching for a answer for my question,Due to laziness i failed to pray 3 prayers (yesterday 2, today's 1) ,so i want to pray the Isha prayer,but the thing is, I'm confused,cause,I also had many qada prayer from before(I made a list of which day and which prayer I didn't prayed),so if i pray isha, should i pray the missed 3 prayers first ,or can i add this 3 prayers to my qada prayers list and then pray at a comfortable schedule

Does verse 25:36 mean that the Egyptians ceased to exist as a people after the Exodus? > And We said, "Go both of you to the people who have denied Our signs." > Then We destroyed them with [complete] destruction. (25:36) > And Pharaoh called out among his people; he said, "O my people, does > not the kingdom of Egypt belong to me, and these rivers flowing > beneath me; then do you not see? Or am I [not] better than this one > who is insignificant and hardly makes himself clear? Then why have > there not been placed upon him bracelets of gold or come with him the > angels in conjunction?" So he bluffed his people, and they obeyed him. > Indeed, they were [themselves] a people defiantly disobedient [of > Allah]. And when they angered Us, We took retribution from them and > drowned them all.(43:51-55) > So Pharaoh pursued them with his soldiers, and there covered them from > the sea that which covered them(20:78)

If I look at youtube, an imam may recite a surah X from ayah a to b, or surah Y from ayah c to d during a salat. For example Al Baqarah from ayah 153 - 158, Humazah from ayah 1 - 9, or Ash Shu'ara from ayah 86 - 104, etc. Where do we learn this ? How do we know that we can recite Al Baqarah 153 - 158, and not 157 - 159, or 151 - 155 ? If I look at either the quran.com or quranwbw.com, there is no symbol whatsoever that indicate it.

In Quran it says " no bearer of burdens will bear the burden of another". Who is " bearer of burdens" adressing to? Is it only humans or other creatures too?

What should we do if we need help of beings other than Allah in necessary situations?

Collection Sahih Bukhari Dar-us-Salam reference Hadith 3200 In-book reference Book 59, Hadith 11 USC-MSA web (English) reference Volume 4, Book 54, Hadith 422 Narrated Abu Huraira: The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "The sun and the moon will be folded up (deprived of their light) on the Day of Resurrection." This hadith says the sun and moon will be folded and the explanations say Takwir means folding a turban or garment. this will cause it to lose its light. if the sun and moon are spheres then how can it be folded. does this mean sun and moon are flat disks? is there anything to prove against it being flat? The quran is surah Takwir also says the sun will be folded

We know that bilqis accepted Islam after she met prophet suleiman. Do we have information on bilqis continuing as queen after acceptance of Islam? > No people who appoint a woman as their leader will ever prosper.” (Reported by al-Bukhaari, 13/53)

Allah says: > And if you obey most of those upon the earth, they will mislead you from the way of Allāh. They follow not except assumption, and they are not but misjudging. > > [Quran 6:116](https://quran.com/al-anam/116?translations=20) Does it mean that the majority always happen to be wrong? Can it also be used to disregard the opinion of the majority of the scholars (as I've noticed some folks doing so with the verse)? Is it open to interpretation? What is interpretation of the sahaba and the scholars on "most of those upon the earth"?

I want to know how the Arabic language explains this verse Surah Isra verse 1 "Glory be to the One Who took His servant ˹Muḥammad˺ by night from the Sacred Mosque to the Farthest Mosque whose surroundings We have blessed, so that We may show him some of Our signs. Indeed, He alone is the All-Hearing, All-Seeing." Initially Allah swt refers to himself in the third person (glory be to the one who-) and then later refers to himself as We (the royal we in English) which switches to first person and then later addresses himself again in the third person saying "he is the all hearing" , Can anyone who speaks arabic explain this because in English it would be odd. The simplest conclusion would be to assume that in "we may show **him** -" and "indeed **he** is the all hearing" both are referring to same person , can someone explain why this is not the case

It is known that the earth and heavens have already been made in 6 days. The lowest heaven is our observable universe. In Quran 51:47, it is written “We built the universe with ˹great˺ might, and We are certainly expanding ˹it˺.” So my question is that if the heavens and earth have already been made, how is it that it’s still expanding. Same with earth, as it’s already been made how is it still undergoing changes today? Jazakallah Khair

In Surah Mulk, verse 5 , Allah says: > وَلَقَدْ زَيَّنَّا السَّمَاءَ الدُّنْيَا بِمَصَابِيحَ وَجَعَلْنَاهَا > رُجُومًا لِلشَّيَاطِينِ ۖ وَأَعْتَدْنَا لَهُمْ عَذَابَ السَّعِيرِ > > And We have certainly beautified the nearest heaven with stars and > **have made [from] them what is thrown at the devils** and have prepared > for them the punishment of the Blaze. How do we understand the highlighted phrase? **Does it refer to meteorites falling to earth?** If yes, since they also fall on other planets, what do we make of their purpose? According to science, meteoroids come from asteroids *(between Mars & Jupiter)* & comets *(from Oort Cloud )*. ***Is this in conflict with the above verse?*** **Note:** To understand difference between meteoroids, meteors and meteorite please click here .

I heard before we can't see the heaven, but do these verses mean that we are able to? I kind of am having doubts. What is the meaning when seeing how the sky is built? Quran 67:3 > And who created seven heavens in layers. You do not see in the creation of the Most Merciful any inconsistency. So return [your] vision [to the sky]; do you see any breaks? Quran 50:6 > Have they not looked at the heaven above them - how We structured it and adorned it and [how] it has no rifts?

How can Qiraat arise if the majority of the Quran was written in the Quraishi Dialect? I previously asked the same question but no reasonable answer. I might have misunderstood the meaning of the Hadeeth: **"If you disagree with Zaid bin Thabit at any point, write in the dialect of Quryaish. Verily, the Quran was revealed in their tongue."** Please, explain it to me, I really dont understand? Also, do we know that Uthman purposely allowed these differences?

Selam aleikum, I know, that one of the criteria’s of an accepted Qiraat is being mutawatir. (Ibn Al-Jazaris conditions) What exactly is meant with it and how many people are needed to make it mutawatir (in each generation)? So let’s say, there is a specific harf or some Ahruf in the recitation of the Prophet (saw), so he recited it and the companions heard it and then they learned it. Does this condition mean, that every single harf were heard by many companions (What number of companions is enough?) and then a Qiraat were made out of them and were recited by companions. Or Does this „mutawatir“ condition is counted after the forming of a Qiraat? Can someone clarify this. May Allah bless you.

Apparently sheikh ibn utheymeen says its permissible to force ourselves on our wives and one brother even said I can grab her and do whatever against her will. Recently I see from another brother mentioning imam Shafi'i saying that forcing a women into things even if it doesn't harm her isn't allowed (which could be misread) in his book kitab Al-umm volume 6 I got shown a video that has no translation for non arabs who speak English and I also heard there is a difference of opinion if so which one is more authentic? (do not respond with emotion, respond with facts and evidence pls) Note: I would like to know all 4 madhab stances on my exact question as well

In Islam, children are considered sinless and under Allah’s mercy until they reach the age of puberty [1] ,[2] . However, some children suffer from painful and fatal diseases such as Tay-Sachs Disease , Canavan Disease , or Spinal Muscular Atrophy (Type 1) , and pass away without ever reaching the age of accountability. These conditions cause immense physical suffering, even though these children cannot be tested morally or spiritually, as they are sinless. The Quran states, “Allah does not burden a soul beyond its capacity” (Quran 2:286) . For the children described above, if this burden is not a test for them, **to which part of their existence does this burden apply**, given that their physical suffering clearly exceeds their capacity?

السلام علیکم I wanted to ask that does a women get punished if she doesn't want to get married because she is terrified of her "naseeb" or what her life will be like? I have met many married women (my mother, married sisters,cousins,friends, and aunts e.t.c) and almost all of their lives get ruined after marriage. Whether it is the physical, emotional, financial or sexual abuse or even attempted murder they face by their in-laws or husband's or how they become physically ill due to having children. Many women that I know have arthritis or chronic illness due to having children, and they still have to do all the housework and raise their children while being in constant pain. Many have said to me themselves that they regret marrying and are staying just for the kids. But those kids are then facing abuse by the hands of the parents (me and my sisters included). Due to this I have developed an immense fear of marriage and having children I know that getting married is a sunnah and that children are a blessing but I honestly do not want to get married because just the thought of facing any of these martial problems terrifies me. Many of my sisters and cousins that are staying in their marriages for their children are so frustrated and angry all the time that the children are being negatively impacted. As someone that had to face this kind of abuse from her parents I do not want to harm my future children like this, that is why I do not want to get married and have children. But my mother keeps telling me that as parents it is their farz to get their children married before dying and by refusing I am making it difficult for them to get in jannah, I know that it is important that we have faith in Allah but when it comes to marriage I just don't want to risk it? Does that make it difficult for me or my parents to get good deeds or get in jannah? Will I be making Allah angry by refusing to follow the sunnah?

I have read multiple interpretations regarding this verse. I found that scholars have mentioned different sayings about the latter portion of the ayah "أنا له لحفظون" about who does the pronoun له refer to in the verse. Some say this refers to Prophet Muhammad S.A.W. I just wanted to know that is there any principle due to which the widely one is accepted is it refers to الذكر itself and if it's agreed upon. Please guide me I'm trying to clear my doubt regarding this for a quite long. Since there's an akhbari scholars saying that there is differences in interpretation of this ayah and therefore cannot be used as evidence for divine preservation. He also quotes Sunni tafsirs to support his claim. His arguments are causing doubts in my mind.

Here is the link to the various qiraats of the Quran Let me post the screenshots of sura 37:12 from 2 different qiraats and also their translation: **Hafs qiraat:** **Translation of the hafs:*** But **YOU** wonder, while they mock* --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- **Khalaf from Hamza:** **Translation:*** But **I** wonder, while they mock* You can also refer to the video