Salaam , From my understanding in your grave after you die, the angels ask you the three questions. If you pass , your grave is widened and your waiting period till day of judgement is peaceful and filled with royalty. Does this mean this person will go to heaven or they have to go through more tests on the day of judgement.

So I got an offer to work as remote contractor from a Palestinian/Arab Israeli citizen client on freelancing site. Initially, I don't know he is from Israel since he posted the job under US location. Then he introduced himself as Palestinian, his name is Arabic name, and yes, I googled him and found that he is Israeli citizen with Palestinian descendant. I am confused right now to accept or decline the offer since I always support Palestine. What should I do?

Assalamo Alaikum! Alhumdulillah, I am a muslim girl who loves her religion and a strong believer in ALLAH and His actions. I will not say that I am very religious because I have done sins, made mistakes all my life like any other human being would do however, I am someone who would recognise her flaws and do try to work on them. I try to say my prayers regularly and would try to avoid doing sins as much as possible. I used to have very thick and long beautiful hair, clear skin etc but in the past few years, I noticed extreme hair loss and extreme acne on my face. This change was rather a sudden thing, I consulted doctors but there is nothing to worry about or any health issue. My hair is so thinning that I feel I’m going bald and might never be able to recover. I am not married yet and I feel I have become so ugly that no one would want to marry me, even if someone does, they surely will not be able to live with a bald wife for long. I believe more in Allah than science or medicines, in research, it says that hair loss is permanent and irreversable. However, I didn’t believe in it and decided that I will seek Allah’s help as there is nothing impossible for Him. And so I did, I started praying more regularly, made duas and requested Allah to make my hair healthy and skin clear like before with the hope that Allah will help me. It’s been six months now and there is no change but feel my condition is not getting better but worse. I know that Allah doesn’t like when one loses hope in Him and I strongly believe that you should never lose hope in Allah because ultimately Allah does support His followers. However, considering my current situation, I hate to say but at some point, I cry and start to lose hope because I think that when a muslim makes duas and Allah doesn’t grant him, it means He has something better planned for him. But in my case, I am just asking Allah to make my hair normal as they used to be and not make me go bald then what better there could be for myself and for my hair if Allah is not granting my wish. I have started to feel helpless and I ask Allah that I haven’t wished for something that is bad or anything, living with baldness will make my life hell and I will not want to live anymore. Of course, I’m only human, a woman and I can only tolerate to a certain level. I feel too depressed becauss of thinking that I have only asked my hair back but Allah might never grant my wish because all I can see is progressive hair loss with no sign of healing. I know people might think that why is she depressed over such a small thing but trust me these things could cause extreme Mental Health issues and low self-esteem that a person could forget to smile or lose hope to breathe. The more heartbreaking thing for me is that I have seeked Allah’s help and had such strong belief that only Allah can help me but no one else. But I am just losing hope and feel so depressed. Can anyone please advise me what to do and how to connect more with Allah so He could help me and I don’t lose hope. Jazak Allah Khair for taking the time to read this and I would appreciate your kind response.

في شرب النبيذ وتخمير الإناء الأشربة صحيح مسلم > حدثنا ‏ ‏أبو بكر بن أبي شيبة ‏ ‏وأبو كريب ‏ ‏واللفظ ‏ ‏لأبي كريب ‏ > ‏قالا حدثنا ‏ ‏أبو معاوية ‏ ‏عن ‏ ‏الأعمش ‏ ‏عن ‏ ‏أبي صالح ‏ ‏عن ‏ > ‏جابر بن عبد الله ‏ ‏قال ‏ ‏كنا مع رسول الله ‏ ‏صلى الله عليه وسلم ‏ > ‏فاستسقى فقال رجل يا رسول الله ألا ‏ ‏نسقيك ‏ ‏نبيذا ‏ ‏فقال بلى قال > فخرج الرجل ‏ ‏يسعى فجاء ‏ ‏بقدح ‏ ‏فيه ‏ ‏نبيذ ‏ ‏فقال رسول الله ‏ > ‏صلى الله عليه وسلم ‏ ‏ألا ‏ ‏خمرته ‏ ‏ولو ‏ ‏تعرض عليه عودا ‏ ‏قال > فشرب ‏ **Sahih Muslim: "Drinks, Drinking wine and fermentation"** > Narrated by Gaber bin Abdullah: We were with the messenger of Allah, > PBUH and he asked for a drink. One of his men said: "Oh Messenger of > Allah, Can we offer you wine to drink?" He said Yes. He (Gaber) went > out looking for the drink and **came back with a cup of wine.** The > messenger (Peace Be Upon him) asked, “Have you covered it with a twig > in a transverse manner” He (Gaber) said, “Yes” and he (Muhammad) > drank. I was informed this hadith was omitted from sunnah.com and is only available on Arabic sites. Can someone verify if this is true or perhaps what a more accurate translation would be.

Assalamualaikum I work in a call center, and our job is to make a fake Facebook id by using Foreign names like David,Jake,etc living in USA but I live in Pakistan. What we do is we join groups of their Respective cities in US and we post about our services like Car Detailing,Duct Cleaning, etc. however we don't scam them, we do provide services to customers but we do lie about our identity such as names and where do we live. Is this source of income halal?

salwat to everyone! I just wanted to ask if Satan is always distracting you and not letting you to do what you want to what exactly should we do? I can't keep myself from Satan's bad intentinons

What I want here is to completely understand the picture of Clinical Trials in Islam. My question is, Can a Muslim work in the research department or the back end IT department for such organisations? Would it be a Halal income?

The phrase خالدين فيها أبداً is often used in Quran. But, what is its precise meaning? As I understand it so far the "khalid" part means the immortality of the soul, and the "abad" part means either the "everlasting" or "indefinite" nature of the place? So, something like "the soul is immortal and in the place eternally/endlessly", or "the soul is immortal in the place indefinitely". Assuming I'm on the right track, there's a important distinction with "eternal" or "indefinite". Again, assuming its one of the two - which one is correct? Or is there some other meaning?

According to the accepted answer in the linked question below, an ummah is " the whole community of Muslims bound together by ties of religion". But didn't earlier Prophets have their own ummah? Is it not said that ours is the last of all ummah? Are Jews not from the Ummah from Moses and Christians from Jesus? I guess what I'm trying to ask is if an individual belongs to the time/era/geography of a Prophet but does not ascribed to the message, is he/she still a part of that Ummah? Are present day *Jews/Christians/Hindus/Sikhs/Buddhists/Zoroastrians* part of Muhammed's Ummah or are they part of their Prophet's Ummah but now have gone astray from the straight path? **Linked Question :** What does “Ummah” mean in Islam?

I was doing istinja and felt some urine come out. I checked to see if there was actually urine by checking my private part. I saw a water drop stay on the penis and then drop into the toilet, but this is the natural case when you pour water on the private part during istinja (i use a lota). I then wiped my private with toilet paper to further investigate and didn't see any water come out of my private. With this evidence, even if I felt urine exit, does the rule of certainty apply or not? I'm worried because if there is urine, then it got onto the carpet, sink, and bathtub which my family also uses. Thank you

In book A New Arabic grammar of the written language, In case of Hamzatu l-wasl, when case :if the final letter of the previous word has no vowel, say "it is given a vowel" What does it mean "it is given a vowel"? For Example: In quran 23:14, for instant, at 23:14.6 "ٱلْعَلَقَةَ" have Hamzatu l-wasl, at beginning, and previse word is "فَخَلَقْنَا", so how to pronounced "ٱلْعَلَقَةَ" as previse word's late letter(alif) does not have vowel. Here is

I found a hadith in Sunan an-Nasa'i 1304 > It was narrated from Shadad bin Aws that: The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) > used to say in his prayer: "Allahumma inni as'aluka at-thabbuta fi > al-amr wal-'azimata 'alar-rushdi wa as'aluka shukr ni'matik wa husna > 'ibadatik wa as'aluka qalban saliman wa lisanan sadiqan wa as'aluka > min khairi ma at'lamu wa author bika min sharri ma at'lamu > wastaghfiruka lima ta'lam (O Allah, I ask You for steadfastness in all > my affairs and determination in following the right path, I ask You to > make me thankful for Your blessings and to make me worship You > properly. I ask You for a sound heart and a truthful tongue. I ask You > for the best of what You know and I seek refuge in You from the worst > of what You know and I seek Your forgiveness for what You know.)" My question is at what rukon (Ruku/Sajdah/....) shall i say this dua.

I guess its a philosophical question, or perhaps maybe one that can't be answered. But, in any case, is there any evidence in Islam that the true nature of God is imprinted on the soul? That is, is it innately part of human nature to understand it without revelation. For example, Allah says "My Mercy encompasses all things". Or, other general concepts that Allah is perfect in all of His attributes of Justice, Wisdom, etc.

Satan is very good at deceiving us human beings to mislead us. Allah knows this earlier. Why did Allah let Satan to misguide us? Why did He give time till Day of Resurrection to make us go astray?

Do we know why Isa(as) is given so much importance and speciality , arguably even among other prophets in the quran. He is the only one who is referred to as a spirit from God and the word of God , while even Adam (as) could be claimed as the word of God as he was created through god's word. I would like to know why amidst the entire human history , God sent a single prophet who came through a virgin birth and performed many special miracles such as creating life and resurrecting the dead etc.(through the permission of god) I have come across arguments made by Christians that use the emphasis of Jesus in the quran to prove his divinity . They also say that only about 600 years after isa (as) who was a sinless prophet , God sent a prophet who did commit sin at times , was not perfect and is mentioned to a lesser extent even in the quran as compared to isa (as). Can anybody clarify the role of isa (as) in our religion and provide reasoning to why he was particularly so special.

The proximal nail fold is the term for the fleshy part directly above the nail matrix or nail root. The lower part of the fold which is directly in contact with the matrix or root is supposed to be sealed but in my case it is not and water can seep in. Is washing this part during ghusl obligatory? Click [here](https://d2jx2rerrg6sh3.cloudfront.net/image-handler/ts/20170110083447/ri/590/picture/nail%20and%20finger%20tip%20anatomy%20-%20gritsalak%20karalak%20_thumb_1.jpg) to look for the part in question

Sorry for asking hypothetical question but is it compulsory that a Muslim must seek permission of Imam before travelling to Dar Al Harb even if Ahlul Harb gives Aman to the Muslim for trade? The quote below might be discussing other issue but first few line raise this question in my mind. Please clarify [فَصْلٌ دَخَلَ قَوْمٌ لَا مَنَعَةَ لَهُمْ دَارَ الْحَرْبِ بِغَيْرِ إذْنِ الْإِمَامِ فَغَنِمُوا] فَصْلٌ: إذَا دَخَلَ قَوْمٌ لَا مَنَعَةَ لَهُمْ دَارَ الْحَرْبِ، بِغَيْرِ إذْنِ الْإِمَامِ، فَغَنِمُوا، فَعَنْ أَحْمَدَ فِيهِ ثَلَاثُ رِوَايَاتٍ إحْدَاهُنَّ، أَنَّ غَنِيمَتَهُمْ كَغَنِيمَةِ غَيْرِهِمْ، يُخَمِّسُهُ الْإِمَامُ، وَيَقْسِمُ بَاقِيه بَيْنَهُمْ. وَهَذَا قَوْلُ أَكْثَرِ أَهْلِ الْعِلْمِ، مِنْهُمْ الشَّافِعِيُّ؛ لِعُمُومِ قَوْلِهِ سُبْحَانَهُ: {وَاعْلَمُوا أَنَّمَا غَنِمْتُمْ مِنْ شَيْءٍ فَأَنَّ لِلَّهِ خُمُسَهُ} [الأنفال: 41] . الْآيَةَ. وَالْقِيَاسُ عَلَى مَا إذَا دَخَلُوا بِإِذْنِ الْإِمَامِ. وَالثَّانِيَةُ، هُوَ لَهُمْ مِنْ غَيْرِ أَنْ يُخَمَّسَ. وَهُوَ قَوْلُ أَبِي حَنِيفَةَ؛ لِأَنَّهُ اكْتِسَابٌ مُبَاحٌ مِنْ غَيْرِ جِهَادٍ، فَكَانَ لَهُمْ أَشْبَهَ الِاحْتِطَابَ، فَإِنَّ الْجِهَادَ إنَّمَا يَكُونُ بِإِذْنِ الْإِمَامِ، أَوْ مِنْ طَائِفَةٍ لَهُمْ مَنَعَةٌ وَقُوَّةٌ، فَأَمَّا هَذَا فَتَلَصُّصٌ وَسَرِقَةٌ وَمُجَرَّدُ اكْتِسَابٍ. وَالثَّالِثَةُ، أَنَّهُ لَا حَقَّ لَهُمْ فِيهِ. قَالَ أَحْمَدُ، فِي عَبْدٍ أَبَقَ إلَى الرُّومِ، ثُمَّ رَجَعَ وَمَعَهُ مَتَاعٌ: فَالْعَبْدُ لِمَوْلَاهُ، وَمَا مَعَهُ مِنْ الْمَتَاعِ وَالْمَالِ فَهُوَ لِلْمُسْلِمِينَ؛ لِأَنَّهُمْ عُصَاةٌ بِفِعْلِهِمْ، فَلَمْ يَكُنْ لَهُمْ فِيهِ حَقٌّ. وَإِنْ كَانَتْ الطَّائِفَةُ ذَاتَ مَنَعَةٍ، غَزَوْا بِغَيْرِ إذْنِ الْإِمَامِ، فَفِيهِ رِوَايَتَانِ؛ إحْدَاهُمَا، لَا شَيْءَ لَهُمْ، وَهُوَ فَيْءٌ لِلْمُسْلِمِينَ. وَالثَّانِيَةُ، يُخَمَّسُ، وَالْبَاقِي لَهُمْ. وَهَذَا أَصَحُّ. وَوَجْهُ الرِّوَايَتَيْنِ مَا تَقَدَّمَ. وَيُخَرَّجُ فِيهِ وَجْهٌ كَالرِّوَايَةِ الثَّالِثَةِ، وَهُوَ أَنَّ الْجَمِيعَ لَهُمْ مِنْ غَيْرِ خُمْسٍ؛ لِكَوْنِهِ اكْتِسَابُ مُبَاحٍ مِنْ غَيْرِ جِهَادٍ. Al Mughni

As explained in https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/44673/is-idol-destruction-a-form-of-religious-intolerance The verse "Let there be no compulsion in religion" Applies only to the people from whom Jizyah is collected. So, my question is what is the ruling about non-muslim slaves? Are they also considered dhimma and their freedom of religion is protected? Or the ruling of freedom of religion does not apply to them?

My family has many uncles and aunts and It is not possible to contact with them frequently and they live very far away from us. Will it be severing the ties of kinship if I don't contact with some of them or is it enough to contact with some of them? Which people actually deserves the ties of kinship most? Jazakallah Khairan

Why did classical scholars, particularly in the Shafi'i madhab, allow non-scriptural disbelievers to be compelled into Islam for the purpose of intercourse? As stated in Shu’ab al-Imān 3/12: "وإنما ذكرت هذه المسألة رواية في الأمة الوثنية. فقد يجوز أن يكون فيها خاصة دون العبد. لأنه لا يمكن سيدها الاستمتاع بها مع وثنيتها، فيجبر بها على الإسلام، ليتمكن من الاستمتاع، كما يجبر الرجل امرأته الذمية على الغسل من الحيض لتهيأ." [Source](https://shamela.ws/book/18567/1398) I can share other Shafi'i scholars who argue the same thing, and if i recall correctly imam shafi'i himself too. Additionally, how can some argue against forcing conversion while maintaining an inconsistent methodology? JazakAllahu khairan.