The Quran is free from scientific errors, and this is another miracle in itself. No one can extract scientific errors from it except by imposing a biased interpretation from their imagination, or by imposing one possible interpretive aspect that the language or expressions used do not require and making it the intended meaning with 100% certainty while there exists another equally strong possible interpretive aspect that contains no scientific error, or due to ignorance of the Arabic language, or by binding the Muslim to every word and letter mentioned in an ancient commentary as if that ancient commentator lived in an intellectual vacuum on planet Mars unaffected by the prevailing culture and environment, so he sometimes tries to twist words or overuse metaphors to reconcile the Quran with his era's culture, thinking that his era's culture reflects reality and the Quran cannot contradict reality in his opinion, so he interprets it thus with good intention, and finally fragmentation. Here is an example of each case: 1- Biased interpretations from imagination. Allah says: "It is not allowable for the sun to reach the moon, nor does the night overtake the day, but each, in an orbit, is swimming." So someone comes and interprets this verse and tells you that the Messenger thought the sun actually revolves around the earth, and this is pure nonsense - a biased interpretation from the beginning, as you assume beforehand that the Quran is human speech then interpret it according to this bias in line with the prevailing culture of its revelation era. So you say he thought the sun's real, actual orbit was this apparent movement in the sky around the earth. But the verse itself does not mention or specify the sun's orbit around what? This is an addition from your imagination only. The verse mentions that the sun is in an orbit swimming. The moon is in an orbit swimming. Night and day are in an orbit swimming. It does not specify what revolves around what? The sun's orbit is its movement in the sky. The moon's orbit is its movement in the sky. The orbit of night and day is the earth's orbit, as the earth moves in the sky, and since night and day are phenomena attached to planet earth, through the earth's swimming in an orbit, they swim with it in an orbit in the sky. So swimming in an orbit here means translational movement from place to another place in the sky around something, not rotation around oneself, otherwise the verse's meaning would become the sun and moon rotating around themselves, not their translational movement from place to place in the sky as well. By the way, most ancient commentators mentioned in their commentaries that (each) here refers to the sun, moon, and stars, despite the verse not mentioning stars, because they did not know how night and day could be in an orbit swimming like the sun and moon with translational movement in the sky??? Their culture was earth's fixity. The alternation of night and day is not expressed by such a strange phrase (in an orbit they swim) but was expressed by turning and insertion. For information: movement is entirely relative and dependent on the inertial reference from which you observe. So even saying that the sun revolves around the earth is not a scientific error as long as you say this is from an earthly observer's perspective only and not an absolute truth - it is indeed a reality and not a mere optical illusion, but from this perspective only if you take the earth as your inertial reference. From an external spatial perspective, the earth revolves around the sun, exactly like the sun's movement - from the perspective of an observer within the solar system, the sun is relatively stationary and the planets revolve around it, but from the perspective of an observer from the center of the Milky Way galaxy, for example, the sun with the planets moves around the galaxy's center and the sun is not stationary from a galactic perspective. Therefore, the Quran does not specify what revolves around what - it only mentions that the sun, moon, and earth (night, day) move in orbits in translational movement in the sky. 2- Forcing one interpretive aspect compulsorily. Among the most famous examples here are the verses of Surat At-Tariq that say: "So let man observe from what he was created. He was created from a fluid, ejected, Emerging from between the backbone and the ribs." So someone comes and says this is a clear scientific error because semen does not emerge from between the spine bones and chest. But this is only one possible interpretive aspect, and you cannot assert with 100% certainty that this is the intended meaning. Rather, there is another interpretive aspect no less strong {actually stronger because it is supported by context, as all pronouns in the sura refer to man, not to the ejected fluid - "Indeed, He, to return him, is Able," "Then man will have no power or any helper"} than the other interpretive aspect, which is that the pronoun in "emerging" refers to man, not the ejected fluid, so the verse's meaning would be the fetus emerging from between the spine bones and chest. This interpretation has support in ancient commentaries as well and is not exclusively modern interpretation. Ibn Atiya says in his commentary: "His saying: 'Emerging from between the backbone and the ribs,' Qatada, Al-Hasan, and others said: meaning: from between the backbone of each of the man and woman and their ribs, and Sufyan and Qatada also and a group said: from between the man's backbone and the woman's ribs, and the pronoun in 'emerging' could refer to man, and could refer to the fluid." There are also many suspended narrations saying that in the testicle is the growth of creation, which means this was common knowledge. 3- Ignorance of the Arabic language. An example is someone saying that the Quran made a grave scientific error because it says bees eat from fruits, while the truth is that bees do not eat ripe fruits but feed on flower blossoms. This is great ignorance of the Arabic language, as fruits in Arabic means everything that emerges from the earth or comes from tree produce, so blossoms are fruits in Arabic. Ibn Faris says in Maqayis Al-Lugha: "Fruit is something that generates from something, gathering, then other things are carried upon it metaphorically." By the Quran's own text: "Who has made for you the earth a bed and the sky a ceiling and sent down from the sky, rain and brought forth thereby from the fruits provisions for you. So do not attribute to Allah equals while you know." In Ibn Jarir At-Tabari's commentary he says: "He means by that He sent down rain from the sky, so He brought forth with that rain from what they planted in the earth from their crops and plantings, fruits as provision for them as food." So the meaning of "fruits" in this verse is everything that water brings out and grows from plants, fruits, and flowers. 4- Binding the Muslim to every big and small thing said by an ancient commentator. For example, he binds you to Allah’s saying: "Then He directed Himself to the heaven while it was smoke" that the smoke here means water vapor, while the first and original linguistic meaning of the word smoke is that which results from combustions and explosions and consists of a mixture of gases with solid materials suspended in it, but of course the nature of gases and suspended solid materials is different in both (fire smoke/cosmic smoke). The word smoke can linguistically be applied to anything resembling fire smoke, meaning a mixture of gases with suspended solid materials. The author of Maqayis Al-Lugha - Ibn Faris says in the entry (dakhan): "(dakhan) The dal, kha, and nun is one origin, which is what comes from fuel, then everything resembling it is likened to it." All space agencies indeed call these clouds that dominate the universe's volume (most of the volume of baryonic matter in the universe to this hour is in the form of interstellar medium and intergalactic medium, which resulted from primordial gas after the Big Bang - simple proportions of this gas clumped into complex structures while most of its volume remained in gaseous form to this hour as interstellar and intergalactic medium) to this hour the term "smoke" due to the extreme visual similarity between smoke and them. You find on NASA's website, for example, an image titled "Cosmic Smokescreen." So he diverts the word from its original, first meaning and what comes to any mind when hearing such a word, using the excuse that the ancients were influenced by their era's culture which saw water vapor or water as the universe's origin, not something fiery that produces smoke. 5- Fragmentations. The solid dome as an example: The Qur’an presents the sky in ways that cannot be reconciled with the idea of a rigid, solid dome. According to the text: Foldable: It can be rolled up like scrolls (21:104). Expanding: It is described as stretching or expanding “and indeed We are its expander” (51:47). Celestial bodies move within it, “each in an orbit swimming” (21:33), “ya‘ruju fīhā” (57:4), “fa-ẓallū fīhi ya‘rujūn” (15:14). Within and inside its interior, not beneath, not passive motion attached to a solid rotating dome but swimming, active motion. Unsupported by concrete pillars: It is raised without visible pillars, “He raised the heavens without pillars that you can see” (31:10). These qualities contradict the notion of a solid rigid structure. Solid rigid matter does not generally fold, expand, contain motion of celestial bodies within itself, or remain suspended without supports. The Qur’an emphasizes natural causes, not arbitrary miracles, in the functioning of the universe. If the sky were a concrete dome, God would have created supports and highlighted them, as He often takes pride in His creation, yet the text explicitly denies such supports. Therefore, verses like "God holds the sky from falling to earth" cannot be interpreted as supporting the solid dome myth. What God means in this verse is explicitly mentioned in three other verses. Arabs call anything above them "sky": rain is sky, meteors are sky. The Qur'an, in three other explicit verses, explains what it means for the sky to fall: it means something from the sky falling: "Or you make the sky fall upon us in pieces as you have claimed, or bring Allah and the angels before us" (Al-Isra 17:92) "Then cause a fragment from the sky to fall upon us, if you are truthful" (Ash-Shu'ara 26:187) "Do they not see what is before them and what is behind them of the sky and the earth? If We willed, We could cause the earth to swallow them or cause fragments from the sky to fall upon them. Indeed in that is a sign for every servant who turns back [to Allah]" (Saba 34:9) These verses mean that God prevents what exists within the sky from falling, not the blue thing you see itself, as the word sky means anything above us (outer space itself + things within it). This is basic Arabic language before any revelation; anything above you is called sky in Arabic. This is not modern patching; this is classical Arabic. The Qur'an itself, for example, calls clouds sky: "Have they not seen how many generations We destroyed before them, whom We had established in the earth such as We have not established you? And We sent the sky upon them pouring down abundantly" (Al-An'am 6:6). It calls the air in which plants grow sky: “A good word is like a good tree—its root is firm and its branches reach into the sky” (Ibrahim 14:24). It even calls the roof or ceiling of a person’s home “sky,” as in the verse: “Whoever thinks that Allah will not support him in this world and the Hereafter, let him stretch out a rope to the sky, then cut it, and see if his plan will remove what enrages him.” (Al-Hajj 22:15) And so on, atheists cannot extract errors except by isolating verses and making things up through their biases and imagination. Verses like “the protected ceiling” or “the splitting of the sky” must be interpreted in harmony with the Qur’an’s broader description rather than forcing the concept of a rigid dome onto isolated passages.

Is there physics laws at ***Heaven*** like the universe we live? Will we walk there because of gravity, will we see light there? Will we have got bloodstream because of we eat? Is there oxygen because of we are breathe in breathe out? Sunrise, sunset, waters and of course the fire of the **hell** and so on...

Currently I am working on a philosophy paper, exploring the correlation between cause and effect, or in other words how present knowledge is wholly dependent upon past knowledge. I was thinking of applying some reference or explanation based on Islam. Is there anything I can talk about, with respect to the hadiths or maybe something from the Quran with regards to the past and present dependency?

I can't stop thinking about that question since i first has been asked it from an atheist. I am a Muslim and I believe none has a 100% belief in Allah s.w.t even me, and that is because the logical questions that come to our minds from time to time. Then I decided to try atheists' questions, and see their answers or try to answer it in order to clear all these questions to me to reach 100% certainty in Allah.

Assalamu Aleikum, I'd like to ask what our prophet meant when he said, **"There are 500 years of distance between each heaven."** I mean, is this '500 years' by walking/marching? I have read some of your fatwas and some tasfers, and it said that 500 years by marching, but I'd like to learn if this is the words of our Prophet or just an interpretation. Can this '500 years' be by riding, at the speed of light, or other kinds of travel? We know for a fact that our universe is so huge, and 500 years of walking is nothing compared to it. Are there other ways to interpret this hadith? Thank you. Following are some of the traditions taken from as-Suyutis al-Haya as-saniya fi l-haya as-sunniya that mention this > Ibn Rāhūya, in his Musnad, Abū š-Šayh and al-Bazzar, on the basis of a > sound chain of transmission that goes back to Abū Darr, report that > God's messenger (God's blessing and peace be with him!) presented the > following teaching: "The interval between heaven and earth is the > distance of 500 years. The diameter of every heaven is also as much as > 500 years. And the interval between this heaven and the one that comes > after it is also as big as 500 years. Thus up to the seventh heaven, > and with the earths it is similar. And the distance between the > seventh heaven and the throne corresponds to all that." > Ahmad b. Hanbal (may God be pleased with him!), in his Musnad, Abū > Dā'ūd, at-Tirmidī, who declares it to be of good quality, Ibn Māğa, > Ibn Abi Aşamm, in his Sunna, Abū Yaʻlā, Ibn Huzayma, at-Tabarānī, al- > Hakim, and giving it a sound derivation Abū š-Šayh have the following > tradition from al-'Abbas b. "Abd al-Muttalib: "We were with the > Prophet (God's blessing and peace be with him!) when he said: 'Do you > know what the distance is between heaven and earth?' - We answered: > 'God and His messenger know better!' - He said: 'Between them there is > a distance of 500 years; and from every heaven to another heaven there > is a distance of 500 years. The diameter of every heaven, too, is 500 > years. Above the seventh heaven there is a sea between the surface of > which and the greatest depth the distance is as big as that between > heaven and earth. Then, above that, there are eight mountain goats; > from their knees down to their hoofs, the distance equals that between > heaven and earth.

Salams all - I'm wondering about charging money for an Islamic dream interpretation service that I provide via my online tool Dreamstate (https://dreamstateai.replit.app/) . It costs me money to provide the tool (about $100 per month for various AI products that support authentic interpretations), not to mention the time away from paid work to build and improve it (significantly more $). The first 3 dreams are free, then I currently charge a minimal amount for lifetime unlimited access ($4). I have had feedback that Islamic services like this should be free entirely. But if I charge nothing, I can't continue to work on it. As a skilled revert who is otherwise unsupported financially, should I give up on building Islamic tools and go get other work? Then my skills would not be used to benefit the ummah. How does this work? I understand the premise but surely the context matters. Have genuinely been wondering about this for a while so any insights from anyone = appreciated

Assalamualaikum, I have been having doubts about this issue for a while and if anyone with knowledge can help, i would appreciate. It is said that we can not know how many have passed since Prophet Adam whenever i ask a scholar but there are some sahih hadiths which actually tells us he lived not that long time ago. Hadiths: •The period between Adam and Nooh (peace be upon them both): it was narrated from Abu Umaamah that a man said: “O Messenger of Allah, was Adam a Prophet?” He said, “Yes, and Allah spoke to him.” The man asked, “How much (time) was there between him and Nooh?” He said, “Ten centuries.(qarn)” Narrated by Ibn Hibbaan in his Saheeh, 14/69; and by al-Haakim, 2/262. •The period between Nooh and Ibraaheem (peace be upon them both): our evidence is in the continuation of the hadeeth of Abu Umaamah (may Allah be pleased with him) quoted above: … He said, “And how long was there between Nooh and Ibraaheem?” He said, “Ten centuries.” (Narrated by al-Haakim in al-Mustadrak, 2/288. Now, i know qarn also means generation but even though we understand it that way, it still doesn't reconcile with science. Since we have remains of ancient human communities that date back much longer time ago. We also know from books that Prophet Ibraheem lived 4000 years ago, between him and Nooh there is 10 qarn and between Nooh and Adam there is 10 qarn too. Even if we assume qarn is 10000 years, which i think scientifically impossible, it means Prophet Adam lived 24000 years ago and this still doesn't make sense. I would really appreciate if anyone has an explanation, thank you.

In verses 22:47 and 32:5, it says a day in the sight of allah is a thousand years by our reckoning. However science says time began with the universe and is an intrinsic part of it. So how can Allah meaningfully experience time when its something he himself created ?

Regards for higher latitude which fajr and Isha begins when Nautical twilight (-12°) even Civil twilight (-6°) in the summer, why there are too many criteria of beginning of Fajr (e.g. SIHAT Kemenag RI -20°, JAKIM Malaysia -18°, MUIS Singapore + MUIB Brunei -20°, Egyptian Geological Survey -19.5°, Muslim World League of Karachi -15°, Umm al-Qura KSA -18.5° etc) and Isha (Sihat Kemenag RI, JAKIM Malaysia, MUIS Singapore, MUIB Brunei -18°, Egyptian Geological Survey -17.5°, Umm al-Qura KSA +90 min. After Magrib (Ramadan +120 min. After Magrib), Muslim World League -15°, etc)? Why OIC not standardize and unified the criterion as OIC choose Turkiye Recommendation for Unified Global Hijri Calendar (as follow by Muhammadiyah, ECFR, FCNA and Turkey-follower countries)? New research from Tono Saksono prove that true fajr (fajr sadiq) begins near Nautical twilight. I've been asked this question in Astronomical Stack Exchange related on the affects of Light Pollution towards beginning of Twilight scientifically.

I am developing an application which allows users to convert from Gregorian to Hijri dates and vice-versa. I am thinking about whether to just have an input box for the date (e.g. 8/21/2021), or to have an additional input box for the time (e.g. 6:00 AM), as I have heard from others that a new day in the Hijri calendar can start in the same day in the Gregorian calendar? Furthermore, does the Islamic Hijri calendar run on a standard 24-hour day just like the Gregorian calendar?

Assalamu’alikum I’ve searching and watch a ton about this topic but still has not reach conclusion,my question is regarding why the Prophet say about female yellow discharged fluid during wet dream HAVING correlation/contribution with the resemblance of the child. As we know from the science, the woman fluid that DISCHARGE/RELEASED during a wet dream in these hadith HAS NO correlation/contribution! And there’s someone who explain well about this matter, but if we look another version of this hadith, the explained point is failed because in another version it just explicitly refer to the fluid that discharged during the wet dream. https://fatwacentre.org/hadith/hadith-and-science-issue-of-yellow-discharge/ In the link above is his explanation that i think served my question well but will failed to be reconciled with the hadith i mentioned below. Aisha (Allah be pleased with her) reports a woman asked the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace), “Is any washing necessary for a woman when she has a sexual dream and sees liquid?” He replied, “Yes, when she sees signs of liquid.” Aisha said to her, “may your hands get soiled, (in exclamation)” The Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace) said, “leave her; THE RESEMBLANCE IS BECAUSE OF IT! When the woman’s water dominates the man’s water, the child resembles its maternal ancestry, and when the man’s water dominates the woman’s water, the child resembles its (paternal ancestry).” [Ahmad] “THE RESEMBLANCE IS BECAUSE OF IT!” How to reconcile with current scientific fact? I know that science is not absolute truth, but it can really disapprove of something that’s clearly wrong. Thank you, Jazakallahu khair PS = If the hadith refer to follicular fluid, then it will missing the context of the question. the hadith refer to the discharged water, it's external not internal, in Aisha hadith it clearly say so. Also if somehow it can be pointed to follicular fluid, sadly it has nothing to do with the resemblance itself. I really need help, I don't want to lose my eemaan

There is a famous hadith about embroy in womb mentioning alaqa,mudgah and nutfa stage.Ref:bukhari 3208.Here in this hadith it states"إِنَّ أَحَدَكُمْ يُجْمَعُ خَلْقُهُ فِي بَطْنِ أُمِّهِ أَرْبَعِينَ يَوْمًا، " and translation is "Creation of each of you is put together in the womb for 40 days".I know some scholars say that alaqa,Mudgah and nutfa all happen in the 40 days it is not 120 days. Interpretation of 40 days is acurate according to modern science.But my question is how can we explain the Gathering of Creation in Womb for 40 days?what is actually gathered in the womb if we interpret the hadith in a way that all stages take place in the same 40 days not individually 40 days?

I’ve come across statements by some contemporary scholars and educators suggesting that pursuing mathematics—particularly with the intention of understanding the order of creation or serving humanity—can be considered a form of *‘ibadah* (worship) in Islam. This idea resonates with how classical Muslim civilizations valued mathematics, astronomy, and logic. Scholars like Al-Khwarizmi, Al-Biruni, and Ibn Sina made substantial mathematical contributions while being deeply religious. *My question:* *Is there a basis in **Qur’an**, **Hadith**, or **classical Islamic scholarship** that explicitly or implicitly supports the view that studying mathematics (or science more broadly) can be an act of worship? And are there examples from Islamic history where mathematical inquiry was treated as a spiritual or religious endeavor?* *What I’ve considered:* *I’ve looked into Qur’anic verses such as *“Indeed, in the creation of the heavens and the earth…”* (3:190) and some writings of Al-Ghazali, but I’d appreciate more precise scholarly references.*

Does Quran or Hadith mention any other intelligent beings in the universe like humans maybe on some other planet? Except for Jin and Angels which are mentioned in Quran. Prophet (P.B.U.H) was given the title of Rehmat-ul-Alamin. And generally the word Alamin is used for man, jin, angels and everything else. How does that fit with the theory of existence of any other being on any other planet?

> Then We made the sperm-drop into a clinging clot, and We made the clot into a lump [of flesh], and We made the lump, bones, and We covered the bones with flesh; then We developed him into another creation. So blessed is Allah, the best of creators. > Qur'an 23:14 In this verse Allah says "... and We made the lump, bones ...". But the lump doesn't totally convert to bones, only a part of it does. So isn't this wrong? Again some might answer this by giving this translation, "... and We made (from) the lump, bones ..." But the Arabic word 'من' is absent here. That means that Allah didn't say that, rather it was put there by the translator. How do you explain this matter? I might be wrong so please forgive me, I'm a human after all.

**Jeremy England's theory on the origin of life is founded in “dissipation-driven adaptation of matter,” in which all forms of matter, living and nonliving, adapt to produce the maximum amount of energy.** How shall we prove that this does not mean that Allah does not exist?

Verse 2:29, > هُوَ ٱلَّذِى خَلَقَ لَكُم مَّا فِى ٱلْأَرْضِ جَمِيعًا ثُمَّ ٱسْتَوَىٰٓ > إِلَى ٱلسَّمَآءِ فَسَوَّىٰهُنَّ سَبْعَ سَمٰوٰتٍۚ وَهُوَ بِكُلِّ > شَىْءٍ عَلِيمٌ > > It is He who created for you all of that which is on the earth. Then > He directed Himself to the heaven, and > made them seven heavens, and He is Knowing of all things. 1st question:- Here Allah says that he first created the earth and everything in it. **Then he directed himself towards the heaven.** The problem I've here is that, To direct oneself towards something, that thing has to **exist**. What I mean is that Allah said that he only created the earth, the heaven was yet not created, So how could He direct Himself towards something which didn't yet exist? 2nd question:- Allah said that He first created the earth **then** he created the heaven. But we know from Big Bang theory that the heaven and the earth formed simultaneously. So isn't this unscientific? If there's any problem in my question please inform me. Thanks!

> Bring me **ingots of iron**." Then after he had filled up the space between the two mountain-sides, he said: "(Light a fire) and ply bellows." When he had made it (red like) fire, he said: "Bring me **molten copper** which I may pour on it." Surah 18 verse 96 It seems to me that the wall or barrier is physical as it uses materials such as iron. They're have been reports of historians claiming to see a wall, but no real hard evidence to back it up. Its 2018 and this brings to me my question, is there a reason as to why muslims and the rest of the human race can't find this wall? Did the Quran or any haidth ever say anything about the wall being invisible to the human eye? The question is a bit werid imo, so if you need clarification, just ask. May Allah forgive me for any mistakes.

Does Quran 21:31 mean the mountains prevent the earth from moving also same with Jami` at-Tirmidhi 3369 can someone explain it to me? Because the verse says that the mountains prevent the earth from moving and I am confused. Quran 21:31 > And We have placed firm mountains upon the earth so it does not shake with them, and made in it broad pathways so they may find their way > Jami` at-Tirmidhi 3369 >The Prophet said: “When Allah created the earth, it started shaking. So He created the mountains, and said to them: ‘Upon it’ so it began to settle.

According to many Islamic sources, Quran 51:47 refers to the expansion of the universe, a phenomenon that has been made known to us in the recent century. > And the heaven We constructed with strength, and indeed, We are [its] expander. (51:47) Most of the debate pertaining to this verse is centered on the word 'musioona', and whether it implies an expansion of space in the past, or a continuous & ongoing expansion. **However, how do we know in the first place that the word 'samaa' used in this verse is referring to the greater universe (i.e heaven)?** In the Quran, Allah frequently reminds us of rain coming from the sky, as provision for his creation: > Do you not see that Allah sends down rain from the sky and makes it flow as springs [and rivers] in the earth; .... (39:21) In verses such as these, the term 'samaa' cannot be used to denote the wider universe, but rather the closer regions of Earth's atmosphere to us. Just to clarify, I understand that Arabic words can mean multiple things - 'samaa' can be either "sky" or "heaven"- **but is it possible to know for certain which of these meanings is meant in 51:47 (i.e without using a potential scientific interpretation)?**