There is a famous hadith about embroy in womb mentioning alaqa,mudgah and nutfa stage.Ref:bukhari 3208.Here in this hadith it states"إِنَّ أَحَدَكُمْ يُجْمَعُ خَلْقُهُ فِي بَطْنِ أُمِّهِ أَرْبَعِينَ يَوْمًا، " and translation is "Creation of each of you is put together in the womb for 40 days".I know some scholars say that alaqa,Mudgah and nutfa all happen in the 40 days it is not 120 days. Interpretation of 40 days is acurate according to modern science.But my question is how can we explain the Gathering of Creation in Womb for 40 days?what is actually gathered in the womb if we interpret the hadith in a way that all stages take place in the same 40 days not individually 40 days?

Is there physics laws at ***Heaven*** like the universe we live? Will we walk there because of gravity, will we see light there? Will we have got bloodstream because of we eat? Is there oxygen because of we are breathe in breathe out? Sunrise, sunset, waters and of course the fire of the **hell** and so on...

Currently I am working on a philosophy paper, exploring the correlation between cause and effect, or in other words how present knowledge is wholly dependent upon past knowledge. I was thinking of applying some reference or explanation based on Islam. Is there anything I can talk about, with respect to the hadiths or maybe something from the Quran with regards to the past and present dependency?

I can't stop thinking about that question since i first has been asked it from an atheist. I am a Muslim and I believe none has a 100% belief in Allah s.w.t even me, and that is because the logical questions that come to our minds from time to time. Then I decided to try atheists' questions, and see their answers or try to answer it in order to clear all these questions to me to reach 100% certainty in Allah.

Assalamualaikum, I have been having doubts about this issue for a while and if anyone with knowledge can help, i would appreciate. It is said that we can not know how many have passed since Prophet Adam whenever i ask a scholar but there are some sahih hadiths which actually tells us he lived not that long time ago. Hadiths: •The period between Adam and Nooh (peace be upon them both): it was narrated from Abu Umaamah that a man said: “O Messenger of Allah, was Adam a Prophet?” He said, “Yes, and Allah spoke to him.” The man asked, “How much (time) was there between him and Nooh?” He said, “Ten centuries.(qarn)” Narrated by Ibn Hibbaan in his Saheeh, 14/69; and by al-Haakim, 2/262. •The period between Nooh and Ibraaheem (peace be upon them both): our evidence is in the continuation of the hadeeth of Abu Umaamah (may Allah be pleased with him) quoted above: … He said, “And how long was there between Nooh and Ibraaheem?” He said, “Ten centuries.” (Narrated by al-Haakim in al-Mustadrak, 2/288. Now, i know qarn also means generation but even though we understand it that way, it still doesn't reconcile with science. Since we have remains of ancient human communities that date back much longer time ago. We also know from books that Prophet Ibraheem lived 4000 years ago, between him and Nooh there is 10 qarn and between Nooh and Adam there is 10 qarn too. Even if we assume qarn is 10000 years, which i think scientifically impossible, it means Prophet Adam lived 24000 years ago and this still doesn't make sense. I would really appreciate if anyone has an explanation, thank you.

I’ve come across statements by some contemporary scholars and educators suggesting that pursuing mathematics—particularly with the intention of understanding the order of creation or serving humanity—can be considered a form of *‘ibadah* (worship) in Islam. This idea resonates with how classical Muslim civilizations valued mathematics, astronomy, and logic. Scholars like Al-Khwarizmi, Al-Biruni, and Ibn Sina made substantial mathematical contributions while being deeply religious. *My question:* *Is there a basis in **Qur’an**, **Hadith**, or **classical Islamic scholarship** that explicitly or implicitly supports the view that studying mathematics (or science more broadly) can be an act of worship? And are there examples from Islamic history where mathematical inquiry was treated as a spiritual or religious endeavor?* *What I’ve considered:* *I’ve looked into Qur’anic verses such as *“Indeed, in the creation of the heavens and the earth…”* (3:190) and some writings of Al-Ghazali, but I’d appreciate more precise scholarly references.*

Assalamu Aleikum, I'd like to ask what our prophet meant when he said, **"There are 500 years of distance between each heaven."** I mean, is this '500 years' by walking/marching? I have read some of your fatwas and some tasfers, and it said that 500 years by marching, but I'd like to learn if this is the words of our Prophet or just an interpretation. Can this '500 years' be by riding, at the speed of light, or other kinds of travel? We know for a fact that our universe is so huge, and 500 years of walking is nothing compared to it. Are there other ways to interpret this hadith? Thank you. Following are some of the traditions taken from as-Suyutis al-Haya as-saniya fi l-haya as-sunniya that mention this > Ibn Rāhūya, in his Musnad, Abū š-Šayh and al-Bazzar, on the basis of a > sound chain of transmission that goes back to Abū Darr, report that > God's messenger (God's blessing and peace be with him!) presented the > following teaching: "The interval between heaven and earth is the > distance of 500 years. The diameter of every heaven is also as much as > 500 years. And the interval between this heaven and the one that comes > after it is also as big as 500 years. Thus up to the seventh heaven, > and with the earths it is similar. And the distance between the > seventh heaven and the throne corresponds to all that." > Ahmad b. Hanbal (may God be pleased with him!), in his Musnad, Abū > Dā'ūd, at-Tirmidī, who declares it to be of good quality, Ibn Māğa, > Ibn Abi Aşamm, in his Sunna, Abū Yaʻlā, Ibn Huzayma, at-Tabarānī, al- > Hakim, and giving it a sound derivation Abū š-Šayh have the following > tradition from al-'Abbas b. "Abd al-Muttalib: "We were with the > Prophet (God's blessing and peace be with him!) when he said: 'Do you > know what the distance is between heaven and earth?' - We answered: > 'God and His messenger know better!' - He said: 'Between them there is > a distance of 500 years; and from every heaven to another heaven there > is a distance of 500 years. The diameter of every heaven, too, is 500 > years. Above the seventh heaven there is a sea between the surface of > which and the greatest depth the distance is as big as that between > heaven and earth. Then, above that, there are eight mountain goats; > from their knees down to their hoofs, the distance equals that between > heaven and earth.

In verses 22:47 and 32:5, it says a day in the sight of allah is a thousand years by our reckoning. However science says time began with the universe and is an intrinsic part of it. So how can Allah meaningfully experience time when its something he himself created ?

Does Quran or Hadith mention any other intelligent beings in the universe like humans maybe on some other planet? Except for Jin and Angels which are mentioned in Quran. Prophet (P.B.U.H) was given the title of Rehmat-ul-Alamin. And generally the word Alamin is used for man, jin, angels and everything else. How does that fit with the theory of existence of any other being on any other planet?

> Then We made the sperm-drop into a clinging clot, and We made the clot into a lump [of flesh], and We made the lump, bones, and We covered the bones with flesh; then We developed him into another creation. So blessed is Allah, the best of creators. > Qur'an 23:14 In this verse Allah says "... and We made the lump, bones ...". But the lump doesn't totally convert to bones, only a part of it does. So isn't this wrong? Again some might answer this by giving this translation, "... and We made (from) the lump, bones ..." But the Arabic word 'من' is absent here. That means that Allah didn't say that, rather it was put there by the translator. How do you explain this matter? I might be wrong so please forgive me, I'm a human after all.

**Jeremy England's theory on the origin of life is founded in “dissipation-driven adaptation of matter,” in which all forms of matter, living and nonliving, adapt to produce the maximum amount of energy.** How shall we prove that this does not mean that Allah does not exist?

Assalamu’alikum I’ve searching and watch a ton about this topic but still has not reach conclusion,my question is regarding why the Prophet say about female yellow discharged fluid during wet dream HAVING correlation/contribution with the resemblance of the child. As we know from the science, the woman fluid that DISCHARGE/RELEASED during a wet dream in these hadith HAS NO correlation/contribution! And there’s someone who explain well about this matter, but if we look another version of this hadith, the explained point is failed because in another version it just explicitly refer to the fluid that discharged during the wet dream. https://fatwacentre.org/hadith/hadith-and-science-issue-of-yellow-discharge/ In the link above is his explanation that i think served my question well but will failed to be reconciled with the hadith i mentioned below. Aisha (Allah be pleased with her) reports a woman asked the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace), “Is any washing necessary for a woman when she has a sexual dream and sees liquid?” He replied, “Yes, when she sees signs of liquid.” Aisha said to her, “may your hands get soiled, (in exclamation)” The Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace) said, “leave her; THE RESEMBLANCE IS BECAUSE OF IT! When the woman’s water dominates the man’s water, the child resembles its maternal ancestry, and when the man’s water dominates the woman’s water, the child resembles its (paternal ancestry).” [Ahmad] “THE RESEMBLANCE IS BECAUSE OF IT!” How to reconcile with current scientific fact? I know that science is not absolute truth, but it can really disapprove of something that’s clearly wrong. Thank you, Jazakallahu khair PS = If the hadith refer to follicular fluid, then it will missing the context of the question. the hadith refer to the discharged water, it's external not internal, in Aisha hadith it clearly say so. Also if somehow it can be pointed to follicular fluid, sadly it has nothing to do with the resemblance itself. I really need help, I don't want to lose my eemaan

Verse 2:29, > هُوَ ٱلَّذِى خَلَقَ لَكُم مَّا فِى ٱلْأَرْضِ جَمِيعًا ثُمَّ ٱسْتَوَىٰٓ > إِلَى ٱلسَّمَآءِ فَسَوَّىٰهُنَّ سَبْعَ سَمٰوٰتٍۚ وَهُوَ بِكُلِّ > شَىْءٍ عَلِيمٌ > > It is He who created for you all of that which is on the earth. Then > He directed Himself to the heaven, and > made them seven heavens, and He is Knowing of all things. 1st question:- Here Allah says that he first created the earth and everything in it. **Then he directed himself towards the heaven.** The problem I've here is that, To direct oneself towards something, that thing has to **exist**. What I mean is that Allah said that he only created the earth, the heaven was yet not created, So how could He direct Himself towards something which didn't yet exist? 2nd question:- Allah said that He first created the earth **then** he created the heaven. But we know from Big Bang theory that the heaven and the earth formed simultaneously. So isn't this unscientific? If there's any problem in my question please inform me. Thanks!

> Bring me **ingots of iron**." Then after he had filled up the space between the two mountain-sides, he said: "(Light a fire) and ply bellows." When he had made it (red like) fire, he said: "Bring me **molten copper** which I may pour on it." Surah 18 verse 96 It seems to me that the wall or barrier is physical as it uses materials such as iron. They're have been reports of historians claiming to see a wall, but no real hard evidence to back it up. Its 2018 and this brings to me my question, is there a reason as to why muslims and the rest of the human race can't find this wall? Did the Quran or any haidth ever say anything about the wall being invisible to the human eye? The question is a bit werid imo, so if you need clarification, just ask. May Allah forgive me for any mistakes.

Does Quran 21:31 mean the mountains prevent the earth from moving also same with Jami` at-Tirmidhi 3369 can someone explain it to me? Because the verse says that the mountains prevent the earth from moving and I am confused. Quran 21:31 > And We have placed firm mountains upon the earth so it does not shake with them, and made in it broad pathways so they may find their way > Jami` at-Tirmidhi 3369 >The Prophet said: “When Allah created the earth, it started shaking. So He created the mountains, and said to them: ‘Upon it’ so it began to settle.

According to many Islamic sources, Quran 51:47 refers to the expansion of the universe, a phenomenon that has been made known to us in the recent century. > And the heaven We constructed with strength, and indeed, We are [its] expander. (51:47) Most of the debate pertaining to this verse is centered on the word 'musioona', and whether it implies an expansion of space in the past, or a continuous & ongoing expansion. **However, how do we know in the first place that the word 'samaa' used in this verse is referring to the greater universe (i.e heaven)?** In the Quran, Allah frequently reminds us of rain coming from the sky, as provision for his creation: > Do you not see that Allah sends down rain from the sky and makes it flow as springs [and rivers] in the earth; .... (39:21) In verses such as these, the term 'samaa' cannot be used to denote the wider universe, but rather the closer regions of Earth's atmosphere to us. Just to clarify, I understand that Arabic words can mean multiple things - 'samaa' can be either "sky" or "heaven"- **but is it possible to know for certain which of these meanings is meant in 51:47 (i.e without using a potential scientific interpretation)?**

>Anas b. Malik reported that Umm Sulaim narrated it that she asked the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) about a woman who sees in a dream what a man sees (sexual dream). The Messenger of Allah (may peace be upon him) said: In case a woman sees that, she must take a bath. Umm Sulaim said: I was bashful on account of that and said: Does it happen? Upon this the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) said: Yes (it does happen), otherwise how can (a child) resemble her? Man's discharge (i. e. sperm) is thick and white and the discharge of woman is thin and yellow; so the resemblance comes from the one whose genes prevail or dominate. I'm not questioning the part about it dominating which is clearly correct, nor the existence of a yellow fluid that influences fertilization. The only issue, which is coincidentally the only one that could be verified empirically is discharges being yellow. Women's nocturnal emissions are nearly always white, and nocturnal emissions aren't the same yellow fluid that's needed in fertilization which is follicular fluid. Thus the discharge mentioned in this very case has no role in fertilization at all let alone in determining the resemblance of a child to one of the parents. Could it be that this was just an assumption from the Prophet's part and that it is totally acceptable for him to be wrong in this case in particular? I'm confident there's a minority opinion that concerning issues not pertaining religion he is liable to making mistakes, especially in science according to Ibn Khaldun, Shah Waliullah and even Qadi Ayyad. I'd argue that the only part that constitutes a religious ruling is the part where he says that if she sees a dream and sees a fluid, this requires ghusl. This part is unequivocally free of error since the Prophet could never make a mistake in religious Ijtihad, just like the information he received through Jibreel cannot in any way be considered false. As for the revelation that he got from Jibreel (AS) after being questioned by Abdullah bin Salam, it only concerned fluid domination determining resemblance to a parent according to the ahadith I've seen (correct me if I'm wrong). Even Dr. Al Barr makes the distinction between the two types of fluid, namely the white sticky one that has no role in making children, and the yellowish one secreted into the fallopian tubes, but he does not mention this apparent contradiction in the hadith. JazakAllah khayr

I intend to become a practicing Muslim if all my question about Islam historically and scientifically are answered. I just feel I do not have enough information to form a decisive conclusion either way.

Does such a hadith (asar) exist among the Sunnis? Is he trustworthy? " The size of the earth compared to the first heaven is like the size of a ring in a desert; the size of the first heaven compared to the second is like the size of a ring in a desert, and so on, until the seventh heaven. The size of the seventh heaven compared to the Kursi of Allah is like a ring in a desert, and the size of the Kursi compared to the Throne is likewise".

What I want here is to completely understand the picture of Clinical Trials in Islam. My question is, Can a Muslim work in the research department or the back end IT department for such organisations? Would it be a Halal income?