**ٱلسَّلَامُ عَلَيْكُمْ** Dear brothers and sisters, I'm on a journey to deepen my understanding of Islamic theology and I'm exploring the methodologies of the Athari, Ash'ari and Maturidi schools. My goal is to understand the core appeal and spiritual benefit that we can find in each path. I hope to get answers grounded in facts, supported by citations or books that I can read, without the conflation of personal opinions. **جَزَاكُمُ ٱللَّٰهُ خَيْرًا**

Exposing knees infront of family members

The society of Muslims needs to be guided by caliph after prophet Mohammad (PBUH). Hence, after the death of holy prophet (PBUH), a caliph was assigned to guide and rule the Muslims. According to my findings in noble Qur'an, God has assigned the caliph. For example, Moses the prophet (PBUH) didn't ask people to form a Shura for choosing a successor when he left for Miqat. > Moses said: "O’ Allah) assign me a vizier from my family, (that is) my > brother Aaron (Haroon) ...,”(Allah) said: "We granted your requests, > O’ Moses.”(20:29-36) . Or in another verse, Allah the exalted, directly mentions the word "Caliph": > يَا دَاوُودُ **إِنَّا جَعَلْنَاكَ خَلِيفَةً** فِي الْأَرْ‌ضِ فَاحْكُم > بَيْنَ النَّاسِ بِالْحَقِّ وَلَا تَتَّبِعِ الْهَوَىٰ فَيُضِلَّكَ عَن > سَبِيلِ اللَّـهِ ۚ إِنَّ الَّذِينَ يَضِلُّونَ عَن سَبِيلِ اللَّـهِ > لَهُمْ عَذَابٌ شَدِيدٌ بِمَا نَسُوا يَوْمَ الْحِسَابِ > > [We said], "O David, indeed **We have made you a successor** upon the > earth, so judge between the people in truth and do not follow [your > own] desire, as it will lead you astray from the way of Allah." > Indeed, those who go astray from the way of Allah will have a severe > punishment for having forgotten the Day of Account.(38:26) But I didn't find other clues mentioning the authority of the prophet or people. Please let me know if others except God has such an authority. Support your answer using Qur'an and Hadith.

As you possibly know, Aql/Aghl (intellect) is regarded as one of the sources of Fiqh in Islam. In Shia Islam, there are four sources of Fiqh: Qur'an, Sunnah, Ijmaa’ and Aql. (www.wikifeqh.ir ) But as much as I know, Aql is considered as a source which has higher position/place (in Shia's view) in comparison with the view of other Mazhabs (sects). So, my query is that: **What is the reason that Shia (Twelver Shia) hold Aql in a higher position in comparison with other sects?**

*Note: This post is intended to provide a canonical answer for a common class of questions* --- The forbiddance of drinking *khamr* is is well-known in Sunni Islam, based primarily on the following Qur'anic ayah: > [[Al-Ma'idah 90](http://legacy.quran.com/5/90)] O you who have believed, indeed, intoxicants (*khamr*), gambling, stone altars, and divining arrows are but defilement from the work of Satan, so avoid it that you may be successful. In addition, two common ahadith are used to elaborate on this, as follows: > Every intoxicant is wine (*khamr*) and every intoxicant is forbidden. and > Whatever intoxicates in large amounts, a small amount of it is unlawful. Whereas the forbiddance on drinking alcoholic beverages in general is, to the best of my knowledge, unanimously held, there is some dispute between the scholars as to how far the prohibition against foods that contain alcohol — even trace amounts — is to be taken. While I'm sure there are many others I'm missing, off the top of my head some of the points of contention would include issues such as "Is the alcohol from wine (i.e. grapes) or some other source," "Does the final product contain enough alcohol to be detected or to have an intoxicating effect," "Was the alcohol added intentionally, or did it generate naturally (e.g. leavened bread, fermented fruit juice)," and "Does the rule of necessity apply (e.g. alcohol in medicine)?" In order to prevent opinion-based voting, please refrain from posting answers that only cover a single point of view: **What I am looking for in an answer here is *a single post* summarizing the major points of contention and predominant opinions of each of the Sunni madhahib**, ideally with a brief explanation of why that opinion is held if it is fundamentally different from the others or seems to go against clear evidences. Including significant opinions outside of those dominantly held by the major madhahib would also be welcome, as long as they're clearly marked as such. In the interest of keeping this from getting too broad (if it isn't already), I am limiting this question to alcohol that is clearly meant for human consumption (i.e. food, beverages or oral medication); the issue of alcohol being used in things like perfume or topical treatments is irrelevant here.

I used to be shia, not one of the extreme ones. Do i have to redo my past prayers or are they valid? Also I read somewhere that being shia means that i was not a muslim and In that case I don't have to do my missed prayers now. Is this true?

Assalamualaikum There is a app called tide business. Tide is a digital business financial platform and the leading provider of digital business banking services in the UK. It offers business accounts, administrative solutions, and various financial services to small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs). Tide is not a traditional bank, but rather a technology company providing financial services. Is it haram to do job in this company???

I hear and read a lot about magic in islam, but I've never known anyone who knows how to do it? Does Islam have some sample magic that one can try out? For example, I was given a Quranic cures book once, in which you can find many Quranic cures. One of them is this: ECZEMA: Recite (Quran 23:14 ) 21 times daily for 41 days in the morning and evening, blow on water and drink. Is that an example of Islamic magic?

Do any sources from Shia make comments about the condition of people before the blowing of the trumpet. I have failed to find anything on Al Islam about the kind of people alive at that time. Why I am asking this is because as per Twelver belief the earth doesn't see a day without an imam. > محمد بن الحسين عن الحسن بن محبوب عن العلاء عن عبد الله بن ابى يعفور عن ابى عبد الله عليه السلام قال كان على بن ابى طالب عليه السلام عالم هذه الامة والعلم يتوارث وليس يمضى منا احد حتى يرى من ولده من يعلم علمه ولا تبقى الارض يوما بغير امام منا تفزع إليه الامة قلت يكون امامان قال لا الا واحدهما صامت لا يتكلم حتى يمضى الاول. (Basa'iru d-Darajat of as-Safar al-Qumi) > > Abdu l-Lah ibn Abi Ya'fur said that Abu Abdi l-Lah (Jafaru s-Sadiq) said: "Ali ibn Abi Talib was the knowledgeable Imam of this Ummah and the knowledge is inherited. Not one of us passes away until he sees a son who learns his knowledge, and the Earth doesn't last for a day without an Imam from us, with the Ummah seeking refuge towards him So the doubt arises. The last twelver imam comes to finish oppression. However per Sunni belief the oppression before the blowing of the trumpet is the worst kind.

According to Sunnis, mut'ah (temporary marriage) was allowed before but later the Prophet salallahu alayhi wassalam abolished it. It is based on the following hadiths (traditions): > In the Two Sahihs, it is recorded that the Leader of the Faithful `Ali > bin Abi Talib said, "The Messenger of Allah prohibited Mut'ah marriage > and eating the meat of domesticated donkeys on the day of Khaybar > (battle).'' In addition, in his Sahih, Muslim recorded that Ar-Rabi' bin Sabrah bin Ma'bad Al-Juhani said that his father said that he accompanied the Messenger of Allah during the conquest of Makkah, and that the Prophet said, > O people! I allowed you the Mut'ah marriage with women before. Now, > Allah has prohibited it until the Day of Resurrection. Therefore, > anyone who has any women in Mut`ah, let him let them go, and do not > take anything from what you have given them. What is the evidence that the Shia used to allow it? Are there any conditions to perform Mut'ah ? What happens to the woman and her children after the Mut'ah marriage ends?

im confused about this verse and its commentaries ibn kathir said > "Regarding the words, {The sun cannot catch up with the moon}, Mujahid said: Each of them has a limit or orbit that it cannot go beyond, and it cannot fall short of that. When one is dominant, the other disappears, and when the dominant one disappears, the other one dominates. Ikrimah said concerning the Ayah, لاَ الشَّمْسُ يَنبَغِى لَهَآ أَن تدْرِكَ القَمَرَ (It is not for the sun to overtake the moon,) this means that each of them has its time when it prevails. So it is not appropriate for the sun to rise at night. وَلاَ الَّيْلُ سَابِقُ النَّهَارِ (nor does the night outstrip the day.) means, after night has passed, it is not right for another night to come until it has been day. The authority of the sun is during the day and the authority of the moon is at night. Ad-Dahhak said, "The night does not depart from here until the day comes from here -- and he pointed to the east.'' Tafsir Ibn Kathir (6/578)/ tafsir ibn kathir on quran 36:40" imam ibn jarir said >It is not appropriate for the sun to catch up with the moon, because that would lead to the light of the sun covering the light of the moon, so it would be day all the time, with no night. {Nor can the night outstrip the day} [Ya-Sin 36:40]. Here Allah, may He be exalted is saying that the night should not overwhelm the day, because that would lead to its darkness cancelling out the light of day, so it would be night all the time. Al-Tabari (19/438). see this in a geocentric perspective where the sun and moon are orbiting the earth how to understand this verse when the moon is visible at day (see the link) the moon doesnt seem to dissapear during the day when the sun is dominant The First Quarter Moon rises in the middle of the day and can be seen in the daytime sky. Half of the side of the Moon facing Earth is illuminated by the Sun. The First Quarter Moon is also seen against a starry night sky until it sets below the western horizon at approximately midnight, leaving the sky very dark. there are multiple pictures of the moon during the day while being close to the sun

Is it permissible to finish reading whole Quran by a group of people, sharing one juz by one person??

I've heard that when you're unsure abt the no of prostration you should think of the smaller no so it's correct if not so what should I do if I forget the no of prostrations?

Assalamualaikum, I have been fasting almost everyday for more than a month now, I have made vow to fast until I get married. I have heard of the hadith that said to fast if I can’t marry. Ramadan is in the corner and I am still fasting. What should I do? Can keep on fasting everyday before Ramadan? What is the way of fasting since I am not able to marry at the moment? I would appreciate your answer. Jazakallahu Khaire.

I am considering converting to Islam at a mosque in my area. I have never been to a mosque before, so this will be my first time. I'm not sure what type of mosque this mosque is I am not sure wether it is a Sunni mosque or Shiite, and I don't want to be rude by going right up to someone and asking. So what is the best way to tell?

If madhiy comes out before the ejaculation of semen, and then semen is ejaculated, and then the semen mixes with the madhiy, is the semen mixed with madhiy considered to be pure or najis? I'm of the view that semen is pure. So please answer from this point of view and mention difference of opinion from this point of view. Thank you. Note : I think that if semen is ejaculated after madhiy is discharged, and the semen mixes with madhiy, the semen may purify the madhiy here as the semen overwhelms the madhiy. And I'm also of the view that says pure liquid other than water can be used to purify impurity. But this is just an assumption. My question is written above, I mainly need answer of that.

pretty much stated everything in the title, did some research but no one answered me in a way my small brain could digest or said blatantly wrong things or just not exactly the same as my situation. so can someone give a fatwah preferably a sunni fatwah

A few months ago, my cousin's brother died and then my other cousins started uploading his pictures on social media (Facebook), attaching them with their pictures. My question is, is this behavior allowed in Islam?

I was doing istinja and felt some urine come out. I checked to see if there was actually urine by checking my private part. I saw a water drop stay on the penis and then drop into the toilet, but this is the natural case when you pour water on the private part during istinja (i use a lota). I then wiped my private with toilet paper to further investigate and didn't see any water come out of my private. With this evidence, even if I felt urine exit, does the rule of certainty apply or not? I'm worried because if there is urine, then it got onto the carpet, sink, and bathtub which my family also uses. Thank you

I am going to have divorce from my husband , I haven’t had physical relationship with my husband since many years do I still need to do iddah after my divorce process completed Thanks Jazak Allah khair