According to the accepted answer in the linked question below, an ummah is " the whole community of Muslims bound together by ties of religion". But didn't earlier Prophets have their own ummah? Is it not said that ours is the last of all ummah? Are Jews not from the Ummah from Moses and Christians from Jesus? I guess what I'm trying to ask is if an individual belongs to the time/era/geography of a Prophet but does not ascribed to the message, is he/she still a part of that Ummah? Are present day *Jews/Christians/Hindus/Sikhs/Buddhists/Zoroastrians* part of Muhammed's Ummah or are they part of their Prophet's Ummah but now have gone astray from the straight path? **Linked Question :** What does “Ummah” mean in Islam?

My focus here is on the translation of the word Ummah (أُمَّة) in Arabic, by which Allah attributed Ibraheem in verse (16:120 ). As shown below there are different interpretation in its translation: > إِنَّ إِبْرَهِيمَ كَانَ **أُمَّةً** > Sahih international and Muhsin Khan > Indeed, Abraham was a [comprehensive] **leader**,... . - while Pickthall and Dr. Ghali used the word "nation", - Yusuf Ali used the word "model" - and Shakir "exemplar". All these words could certainly fit to describe this prophet (), but my question is: What is the actual meaning of this word in this context and why was it used as an attribute of Ibraheem and how -if it actually does- does it differ from it usual meaning? Which was discussed before in: - https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/46012/what-makes-one-a-part-of-the-ummah - https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/7570/what-does-ummah-mean-in-islam Or is there a secret behind calling Ibraheem "ummah"?

Assalam o Alaikum to all my Muslim brothers, Darul uloom Deoband issued fatwa and instructed all madrasas to celebrate the independence day of the country. Now, I'm just a student of knowledge so I can't say anything with conviction but From what I understand Nationalism (assabhiyah) was discouraged by the Holy Prophet Muhammed (saw). Therefore is celebrating independence day along side the kuffar, by hoisting flags and singing national anthems tolerated in Islam or is it Against Islam? Also why has the ummah become so intoxicated with nationalism in the past century? Sadly, it seems The young these days are ready to fight their Muslims brothers openly in defense of their nations and government.

From Tafsir Ibn Kathir : > No town has denied the truth and then believed when they saw the > scourge, and then their belief benefited them, with the exception of > the people of Yunus. When they lost their Prophet and they thought > that the scourge was close upon them, Allah sent through their hearts > the desire to repent. So they wore woolen fabrics and they separated > each animal from its offspring. They then cried out to Allah for forty > nights. When Allah saw the truth in their hearts and that they were > sincere in their repentance and regrets, He removed the scourge from > them. Does this imply that each and every individual of that Ummah became a believer? Is **Prophet Yunus (Jonah)** the only Prophet to have his entire Ummah turn to Allah (esp after he left them without Allah's permission & was eaten alive by a fish only to repent and be forgiven by Allah)?

In non-Muslim countries, it is often desired to get a statement of a representative of the Muslim communities. At present, there are usually a lot of communities, some of which are members of an organisation directly linked to a foreign state but no one is authorised to speak on behalf of all communities. Is there a base in Islamic rulings on which Sunni Muslims could elect representatives for all communities or are there any Islamic rulings that forbid to do so?

The hadith in bukhari ‏ >Narrated Ibn `Umar: > > The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "Your example and the example of the people of the two Scriptures (i.e. Jews and Christians) is like the example of a man who employed some laborers and asked them, 'Who will work for me from morning till midday for one Qirat?' The Jews accepted and carried out the work. He then asked, Who will work for me from midday up to the Asr prayer for one Qirat?' The Christians accepted and fulfilled the work. He then said, 'Who will work for me from the Asr till sunset for two Qirats?' You, Muslims have accepted the offer. The Jews and the Christians got angry and said, 'Why should we work more and get lesser wages?' (Allah) said, 'Have I withheld part of your right?' They replied in the negative. He said, 'It is My Blessing, I bestow upon whomever I wish .' > >Sahih al-Bukhari 2268 The point is about the saying of people of the book that they worked more but got less wages. We know that jews worked for about 1700 years and christians for 600 years and the Muslim ummah is now in 1440s years. Wouldn't it mean that the muslim ummah can't be more than about 1700 years as jews worked more than that? And hence it that case it will be false for them to say we worked more? But christians saying we worked more doesn't make sense?

Islam doesn't believe in racism or superiority of one caste over the other one. But according to majority of the scholars, Syeds (descendants of Prophet S.A.W's family) do not take zakaat because of the following reason : **According to the meaning of one Hadith, Zakat is like the filth taken off the wealth, hence that's why it can't not be given to descendants of Holy Prophet S.A.W's family** **"Charity (Zakah) is not becoming for the family of Muhammad, as it is people's impurities. "** [Sahih Muslim, Book on Zakah, no.1072] JazakAllah

We know that except for Prophet Muhammed (SAW), other Prophets were sent only for a specific time or to a particular community or location. Given that the shariah for the different Prophets might have been similar but not identical, did other ummahs have a different Qibla at the same period in history? For example, is it possible that the Qibla for Bani Israel was in Jerusalem while at the same moment it was in say South America for people of Latin America?

After the death of the Prophet (S), several Caliphs became leaders of the Muslim Ummah. I have two questions about this: 1. Who was the last Caliph? 2. Why is there no longer a set leader of the Muslim Ummah?

A person becomes Muslim by showing he believes "There is no god but God and Muhammad is the messenger of God". Given that socio-political custom is a construct of peoples' different geographic and temporal experiences, would the proclamation of the tahlila - showing a belief in Tawheed - bring a non-Muslim any closer to the Ummah? In reverse, if a person of Muslim heritage chooses to only state the first half of the Shahadah, where does he stand?