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إِنَّ اللَّهَ وَمَلَائِكَتَهُ يُصَلُّونَ عَلَى النَّبِيِّ ۚ يَا > أَيُّهَا الَّذِينَ آمَنُوا صَلُّوا عَلَيْهِ وَسَلِّمُوا > تَسْلِيمًا

> > Allah and His Angels send blessings on the Prophet: O ye that believe! > Send ye blessings on him and salute him with all respect. **Surah Ahzaab verse 56** I have to think about this from a long time why Allah has to send his blessing toward Muhammad (saw). I mean Allah have All the power of the world and he accepts all blessing of mankind and every other living thing, then why He have to send his blessing?
I am sorry if I did not get the proper translation cause I don't know how to speak Arabic.

Some explanatory books, such as Nayl al-Awtar by Imam al-Shawkani, Mirqat al-Mafatih by al-Mulla Ali al-Qari, and the explanation of al-Mishkat by al-Tibi, have interpreted the hadith of Safiyyah (radi Allahu 'anha), when she said that the Prophet (salla Allahu 'alayhi wa sallam) "bana biha", to mean that he built a new tent because of her or with her. Is it valid to interpret the hadith of Aisha (radi Allahu 'anha): "bana bi Rasul Allah", to mean that he built a tent because of her or with her? My question is: is this interpretation acceptable from the perspective of the Arabic language?

Qur'an 23:6 has varying translations (see Islam Awakened ): > إِلَّا عَلَىٰ أَزْوَاجِهِمْ أَوْ مَا مَلَكَتْ أَيْمَانُهُمْ فَإِنَّهُمْ غَيْرُ مَلُومِينَ > > **except with their wives**, and what their right hands possess for then they are free from blame, -- Wahiduddin Khan > > **except with their spouses** and whomever their right hands may control, since then they are free from blame. -- T.B.Irving In the first case, the ayah seems directed at men since it refers to "wives". But in the second case, it refers to "spouses". I put أَزْوَاجِهِمْ into Google Translate , and it says "their husbands", but that's not listed among the Islam Awakened translations. **Question**: Does Qur'an 23:6 talk about "wives" or "spouses" in إِلَّا عَلَىٰ أَزْوَاجِهِمْ?

What is the meaning of "jahileen" or "jahiloon"? especially in the context of below aaya of Sura Baqarah وَإِذْ قَالَ مُوسَىٰ لِقَوْمِهِۦٓ إِنَّ ٱللَّهَ يَأْمُرُكُمْ أَن تَذْبَحُوا۟ بَقَرَةًۭ ۖ قَالُوٓا۟ أَتَتَّخِذُنَا هُزُوًۭا ۖ قَالَ أَعُوذُ بِٱللَّهِ أَنْ أَكُونَ مِنَ ٱلْجَـٰهِلِينَ ٦٧ and also in below aaya of Sura Furqan وَعِبَادُ ٱلرَّحْمَـٰنِ ٱلَّذِينَ يَمْشُونَ عَلَى ٱلْأَرْضِ هَوْنًۭا وَإِذَا خَاطَبَهُمُ ٱلْجَـٰهِلُونَ قَالُوا۟ سَلَـٰمًۭا ٦٣ **I heard from a genius student that "jahil" also means emotional while i was thinking that "jahil"means ignorant(having lack of knowledge)**

Regarding the verse 71:16 : > وَجَعَلَ ٱلْقَمَرَ فِيهِنَّ نُورًا وَجَعَلَ ٱلشَّمْسَ سِرَاجًا > > And made the moon therein a [reflected] light and made the sun a > burning lamp I saw an Arab atheist claiming that the meaning of the Arabic word nur is not "reflected light"; its meaning is just "light". If its meaning is " reflected light" there is no problem, but if its meaning renders " light" there is a problem because then the above verse will be considered a scientific error. Could you please provide the proper meaning of nur according to authentic references?

> Then We made the sperm-drop into a clinging clot, and We made the clot into a lump [of flesh], and We made the lump, bones, and We covered the bones with flesh; then We developed him into another creation. So blessed is Allah, the best of creators. > Qur'an 23:14 In this verse Allah says "... and We made the lump, bones ...". But the lump doesn't totally convert to bones, only a part of it does. So isn't this wrong? Again some might answer this by giving this translation, "... and We made (from) the lump, bones ..." But the Arabic word 'من' is absent here. That means that Allah didn't say that, rather it was put there by the translator. How do you explain this matter? I might be wrong so please forgive me, I'm a human after all.

I am looking for a professional answer to the following question. I have read books claiming that Allah is not a "God." One of the authors is famous. While technically analyzing the statements of the author, I need a certain level of knowledge in Arabic. **Question:** >If we translate the phrase of the Kalimat al-Tawhid ("La ilaha illa Allah") as "There is no God, only Allah," then, if Allah is definitively not a god, the particle illa (إِلَّا) should technically indicate an exception munqati' (disconnected exception) rather than muttasil (connected exception). My question is purely technical, not philosophical: If Allah is definitively not a God, then in the phrase Kalimat al-Tawhid, is the exception particle munqati' or muttasil? I seek an **authoritative** answer, as I couldn't find a definitive explanation anywhere online. I am aware that "Allah" is a proper noun, whereas "God" is not. Therefore, I understand that the name "Allah" cannot be translated as "God." However, this does not necessarily mean that "Allah" is definitively not a "God". --- Here is a quote from the author: >The Meaning Of The Word Of Unity The Word of Unity: La ilaha illallah, comprises the foundation of the Islamic faith. > >Taken literally, it means: There is no god, only Allah. > >If we evaluate its meaning… La means No, ilaha means god, i.e. there is no god. > >Note that, the first part of the word of unity is a denunciation: there is no god, there is no deity, after which it establishes the realityilla Allah, there is ONLY ALLAH! > >It is of paramount importance that we understand how big a mistake it would be to evaluate and translate this statement according to the colloquial language spoken by the Arab population today. > >Let us give an example. The Arabic statement: La rajulun illa Ali can be translated literally as: ‘There is no real man except/but Ali’ or ‘There is no man like Ali’ or ‘Among the men none are Ali’s alike’ (note that all of these statements denote there are in fact other men, but they are not like Ali). However, when the word illa is used in conjunction with the word ALLAH it does not mean ‘a god like Allah’, that is, it should not be understood as ‘there other gods, but none are like Allah’, as the very meaning denoted by the word ALLAH invalidates this supposition from the onset. > >Just as the auxiliary verb was (khaane), when used in conjunction with Allah, loses its general meaning and is taken as the present simple tense, when the word except (illa) appears next to the word Allah it also loses its general connotation and is taken to mean only. Here is an example: > >KhaanALLAhu gafurur rahiyma cannot be translated as ‘Allah was Ghafur and Rahim’as the qualities denoted by the Names of Allah cannot be subject to time; they are ever present and ever effective. > >Similarly, illa Allah cannot mean except Allah, which denotes the existence of others, but must be understood as only Allah! > >The compositional qualities of the One to which the word Allah refers, does not accept the existence of another, especially that beside itself. > >Hence, khaane, illa and all other expressions that denote time and (other) existence must be construed appropriate to the meaning of Allah when used in conjunction with it. Otherwise, it will inevitably result in the conception of a god beyond! > >Now examining the Word of Unity: There is no God, there is only Allah in light of this consideration, the first message that we are given is There is no god. Only after this definite denunciation we are told ILLA ALLAH. As explained above, because the word illa is used besides the word Allah the only correct construal of this statement can be ONLY ALLAH as opposed to except Allah or but Allah for there is no other being in existence to which Allah can be compared to or excluded from! Therefore, in order for the UNITY and ONENESS (non-duality) of the Islamic faith to be communicated correctly, the Word of Unity must be understood and translated accurately. > >Indeed, there is only Allah, and Allah is not a god to be deified, idolized or worshipped, as per the message ‘there is no god’! In fact, Allah isn’t even a god that is beyond man and creation! > >So, what is worship as opposed to servitude? > >To deify or worship something necessitates the existence of a god. That is, the very act of worshipping someone or something means there is a worshipper and one that is worshipped. This leads to duality. There is a you as an individual, and then there is your god who is beyond you, and you worship this god. Clearly, this is an interaction between two parties. We may say then, that worship, in this context, refers to the collection of all the activities that are done in respect to this earthly or heavenly (exterior) God.

Is there a English pdf version of Al wabil al sayyib الوابل الصيب? If there is can you give me the link of the book. Thank you . The book by ibn qayyim

In Quran it is mentioned that the bones are covered with muscles in early stage.But in Quran is it flesh(لحم) not muscle(عضلة).Is flesh and muscle in Arabic same or different?Is flesh comprehensive in this case?

An AI bot presented to me the following hadith: “Verily, Allah has prescribed excellence in all things. So, when you kill, kill well; when you slaughter, slaughter well. Let each one of you sharpen his knife and spare the animal pain.” (Sahih Muslim 1907) Although I found a completely different hadith on that number at sunnah.com, but when I searched those words on Google, I found the following Sahih Muslim hadith. > Shaddid b. Aus said: > > Two are the things which I remember Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) having said: > Verily Allah has enjoined goodness to everything; so when you kill, > kill in a good way and when you slaughter, slaughter in a good way. So > every one of you should sharpen his knife, and let the slaughtered > animal die comfortably. > > >حَدَّثَنَا أَبُو بَكْرِ بْنُ أَبِي شَيْبَةَ، > حَدَّثَنَا إِسْمَاعِيلُ ابْنُ عُلَيَّةَ، عَنْ خَالِدٍ الْحَذَّاءِ، > عَنْ أَبِي قِلاَبَةَ، عَنْ أَبِي الأَشْعَثِ، عَنْ شَدَّادِ بْنِ > أَوْسٍ، قَالَ ثِنْتَانِ حَفِظْتُهُمَا عَنْ رَسُولِ اللَّهِ صلى الله > عليه وسلم قَالَ ‏ "‏ إِنَّ اللَّهَ كَتَبَ الإِحْسَانَ عَلَى كُلِّ > شَىْءٍ فَإِذَا قَتَلْتُمْ فَأَحْسِنُوا الْقِتْلَةَ وَإِذَا ذَبَحْتُمْ > فَأَحْسِنُوا الذَّبْحَ وَلْيُحِدَّ أَحَدُكُمْ شَفْرَتَهُ فَلْيُرِحْ > ذَبِيحَتَهُ ‏"‏ ‏.‏ > > >Reference : Sahih Muslim 1955a In-book reference > : Book 34, Hadith 84 USC-MSA web (English) reference : Book 21, > Hadith 4810 (deprecated numbering scheme) Source: https://sunnah.com/muslim:1955a The confusion is that there appears to be a contradiction. The former appears to say that try our best to do everything we do in the most efficient and effective manner, i.e. striving for excellence (I am talking about worldly matters, e.g. one's job). However, the later appears to talk about showing kindness. Can someone please elaborate on this, especially the word *ihsaan* with examples, to clarify if it really means striving for excellence, even in worldly matters?

I am asking about the verse 3:54 of the Quran where it says: > والله خير الماكرين According to this website: https://www.almaany.com/en/dict/ar-en/%D9%85%D8%A7%D9%83%D8%B1/ The word of "ماكر" is mean: > deceive; crafty; deceitful; deceptive; equivocator; knavish; misguiding; misleading Does this phrase translate to 'Allah is best deceiver'?

In this Iranian website it is stated that the word کَوکَب means star in the holy Quran: > (فَلَمَّا جَنَّ عَلَیْهِ‌ اللَّیْلُ رَای‌ کَوْکَباً) «چون شب او را فرا گرفت ستاره‌ای دید.» Surat al-An'am, verse 6. Translation of the Persian translation (pardon me please if a little incorrect): When the night cast on him, he saw a star. But doesn't star translate to نَجم and اَختَر in Arabic? We have also verses that contain نَجم with the meaning of star: > (وَ النَّجْمِ‌ اِذا هَوی‌) قسم به ستاره آن زمان که فرود می آید (Swear to star, when it comes down) Surat al-Najm, verse 1. I also searched for مِرّیخ in Arabic Wikipedia : > المِرِّيخ أو الكوكب الأحمر هو الكوكب الرابع من حيث البعد عن الشمس في النظام الشمسي... Ttanslation: Mars or the red planet is the fourth planet in the aspect of distance from the Sun in the solar system... کَوکَب clearly means planet here. I am confused. Does کَوکَب mean star or planet in the holy Quran? Maybe it meant star at the time of Prophet Muhammad (P.B.U.H)? But there is also a Quran verse (in the surah al-Yusuf) that کَوکَب sounds planet to me in! > اِذ قالَ یوسُفُ لِأبیهِ یا اَبَتی إنّی رَأیتُ اَحَدَ عَشَرَ کَوکَبا وَالشَّمسَ وَالقَمَرَ رَأیتُهُم لی ساجِدین Translation: When Joseph told his father: "oh father, I saw (in my dream) that eleven planets(?) and the Sun and the Moon were bowing down to me". I can't think کَوکَب means star here! Because the Sun is a star itself and also, it's always the planets that come after the Sun. The verse also calls the Moon.

In book A New Arabic grammar of the written language, In case of Hamzatu l-wasl, when case :if the final letter of the previous word has no vowel, say "it is given a vowel" What does it mean "it is given a vowel"? For Example: In quran 23:14, for instant, at 23:14.6 "ٱلْعَلَقَةَ" have Hamzatu l-wasl, at beginning, and previse word is "فَخَلَقْنَا", so how to pronounced "ٱلْعَلَقَةَ" as previse word's late letter(alif) does not have vowel. Here is

Both of these words are translated as "sea." What's the semantic difference between them?

Assalamu Alaikum, What is the meaning of "ذ‌‍ٰلك" in Quran 2:2? Many or even all Quran translaters have translated it as "This". But in an Arabic-English I found Arabic word for "This" is "ذا" or "هذا". And word "ذٰلك" in not present in the dictionary and it appears to be a combination of two words; "ذا" (this) and "لك" (yours). So why it is not translated as "This yours"? Please can you explain me its real meaning or why/how it is translated as "This", as I have very less knowledge of Arabic language. I shall be very thankful to you.

I would like your help in refuting a Christian claim as this has been bugging me for a while now Is the epsilon truly more fitting of the first letter of the word "Allah" (as pronounced in Arabic) when when translated to greek from arabic or would it be an intermediate . Also wouldn't starting with epsilon render the pronunciation of the rest of the word incorrect as in Arabic the second alpha isn't really 'a' it's more of an o and the L's are pronounced differently and the xhi at the end would become silent. I would be grateful if you could respond to this as both Christians and Muslims use this word to refer to God. https://christianforums.net/threads/666-is-allah.102890/

Salamo3alaykom, I have a question regarding the linguistics after the tashahhud. للَّهُمَّ صَلِّ عَلَى مُحَمَّدٍ، وَعَلَى آلِ مُحَمَّدٍ، كَمَا صَلَّيْتَ عَلَى إِبْرَاهِيمَ، وَعَلَى آلِ إِبْرَاهِيمَ، إِنَّكَ "حَمِيدٌ مَجِيدٌ، وَبَارِكْ عَلَى مُحَمَّدٍ، وَعَلَى آلِ مُحَمَّدٍ، كَمَا بَارَكْتَ عَلَى إِبْرَاهِيمَ، وَعَلَى آلِإِبْرَاهِيمَ، فِي الْعَالَمِينَ إِنَّكَ حَمِيدٌ مَجِيدٌ In this sentence what's the difference between صلّ and برك? I know that صلٌ in this context doesn't mean "praying" because Allah subhana wa ta'ala definitely does NOT pray since he is Allah.but it might mean "sending blessings ", but also barik means "sending blessings". I've found some BAD rough translations in Italian and French that in this very context translate صلّ as praying, and I thought in myself that this is impossible because Allah subhana wa ta'ala does NOT pray because He is Allah (so this would be shirk because there's no superior over Allah), the All-Mighty. So can someone clarify the difference between برك and صلّ in this context please?

My mother went somewhere for ruqya and they gave this for adding to the water we drink. I am not good at reading Arabic hand-written like this. So I want to confirm if this is something from the Quran or God forbid something haram (in which case we should throw it away), as we don't really know the person who gave it to us. It has been sitting in my purse for a while. I know it starts with BismiAllah-i-Rahman-i-Raheem. I understand this much. Is that a Quranic verse after? I want to make sure that it is all Quran. _____________________________ JazakAllah khair for the comments. It has been indicated in some comments that it is not a part of islam that we write things on paper and add to drinking water. **But I do believe and have always felt that the word of Allah brings so much barakah in one's life. Also, I keep worrying that if I am not protected by Allah for less than a nanoseond (or smallest), shaitaan will harm me as he is such a shitshow beyond words. I feel a lot of anxiety in this regard.** However, since it is not Quran, how and where should I discard it?

I was reading a post here on this site regarding this topic. https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/35720/are-there-narration-chains-for-the-coccyx-tailbone-hadith-that-dont-go-through?rq=1 The poster was kind enough to include the link however it's in Arabic. I was wondering if anyone knows where I can find the English translation of these pages: http://www.ibnamin.com/num_hadith.htm https://www.alukah.net/library/0/72967/

Selamun aleikum, Can someone give me a literal translation of these particular verses (and add a little bit of explaining): Surah Al-Ala, Verses 4/5: >وَالَّذِي أَخْرَجَ الْمَرْعَىٰ >فَجَعَلَهُ غُثَاءً أَحْوَىٰ I already know what is meant, but the translations are translating أَحْوَىٰ as black, how is pasture getting black? The word غُثَاءً also varies with up to many words in the translations. The translations varies in wording, I personally favor the literal ones, but I don’t know, which one is more literal. One of the English translations (Saheeh International): >(4)And who brings out the pasture (5)And [then] makes it black stubble. I only need a quick Arabic lesson here.