In this Hadith which is found in Bukhari and Muslim it says: >Anas Ibn Maalik said, "The Qur'an was collected in the lifetime of the Prophet (ﷺ) by four (men), all of whom were from the Ansar: Ubai, Mu`adh bin Jabal, Abu Zaid and Zaid bin Thabit.
**[ [Sunnah Ref: Bukhari 3810](https://sunnah.com/bukhari:3810) ]**
**[ [Sunnah Ref: Muslim 2465a](https://sunnah.com/muslim:2465a) ]** And I want to know what "collected" means here. Does it mean these four men compiled a physical mushaf or does it mean they memorised the Qur'an?

Given that eel is clearly a water animal, one would think that it would fall under the general ruling of the hadith wherein [the sea's water is pure and its dead is permissible](https://sunnah.com/nasai/42/88) . However, I clearly recall reading from various sources that eel is considered haram by at least one of the major schools of jurisprudence. The internet being what it is, I've had trouble finding reliable references thereof; the best I've learned is that eel is clearly *halal* according to the Hanafi school (which I find interesting, considering how many other species of seafood they don't deem thus), but I've found little more than vague references that either the Maliki or Hanbali schools consider it *haram*, but with nothing to back them up. I've also not found any clear evidences as to *why* eel is considered thus. A few possibilities I've seen presented, again without any reliable references to back them up, are as follow: * Eel is not "fish-shaped" (neither are most shellfish) * Eel does not have scales (does this even matter?) * Eel is a predator (a lot of fish are) So the question lies thus: **Which school(s), if any, do not consider eel inherently *halal* (like other seafood), and why not?**

There is [whole section in sahih bukhari](https://sunnah.com/bukhari/49) about manumitting slaves But there are other narrations like: > Jabir b. 'Abdullah said that a person among the Ansar declared his > slave free after his death, as he had no other property. This news > reached the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) and he said: > > Who will buy him from me? And Nu'aim b. al-Nahham bought him for eight > hundred dirhams and he handed them over to him, 'Amr (one of the > narrators) said: I heard Jabir b. 'Abdullah as saying: He was a Coptic > slave, and he died in the first year (of the Caliphate of 'Abdullah b. > Zubair). > > https://sunnah.com/muslim/27/86 > Narrated Maimuna, the wife of the Prophet (ﷺ) that she manumitted her > slave-girl and the Prophet (ﷺ) said to her, "You would have got more > reward if you had given the slave-girl to one of your maternal > uncles." > > https://sunnah.com/bukhari/51/28 There was another hadith about 6 slaves being freed upon someones death and after that casting lots to decide who would be freed that was explained already so I excluded that. These narrations were put forward by some non-muslims.The narrations at first I found to be odd but then saw them in the Bukhari and Muslim so, can't really reject them. 2nd hadith apparently seems to say that giving slaves as gifts is more preferred than freeing them is that a correct veiw? How do I reconcile these two narrations with the narrations of manumitting slaves?

I met a lot of friends on a Discord server for a Disney movie that contains music. Would it be haram to stay in that server (even if I don’t talk about the movie there), and would it be haram to stay friends with the people I met there (even if they aren’t pushing me to sin)?

Assalaamalaikum, I am learning how to pray but I have questions. Is it prohibited to recite the shortest Darood Shareef after tashahhud in the last rakat in Salah? “Allahumma Salli Ala Muhammad Wa Ala Ali Muhammad” Or do I need to recite this “allahuma salli ala muhammadin kullama zakarahuz zaakiruna wa kullama ghafala un zikrihil ghafilun in the last rakat?

If I make some sounds unintentionally, for example, when I close my mouth and open it and a sound arises, or when I swallow my saliva, does this make my prayer invalid?

The prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم said: > “The Jews and the Christians do not dye (their hair) so do the opposite to them” as recorded by Al-Bukhaari, Muslim, Ahmad, Abu Daawood and An-Nasaa’i. Yet no scholar ever stated that dying hair was obligatory. Why was it so? Any command from prophet (saw) is obligatory unless evidences suggest otherwise. So were there any evidence as to why dying hair is not obligatory, can you please quote them?

My teacher is an Imam of a mosque, he used to teach Qur'an and now that I have become older and we discuss many things related to Islam. So he recently asked me a question which I couldn't answer: > Can I dye my beard or hair black?

In this Hadith prophet is allowing the polytheists the option of Jizyah: >...When you meet your enemies who are polytheists, invite them to three courses of action... Invite them to (accept) Islam.... If they refuse to accept Islam, demand from them the Jizya....**[ [Muslim](https://sunnah.com/muslim:1731a) ]** But in The Sword Verse, (it appears to me) the muslims are ordered to fight until the polytheists until those polytheists convert to Islam, and the jizya is not given as an option: >And when the sacred months have passed, then kill the polytheists wherever you find them and capture them and besiege them and sit in wait for them at every place of ambush. But if they should repent, establish prayer, and give zakah, let them [go] on their way. Indeed, Allah is Forgiving and Merciful. **[ 9:5 ]** And further, Ibn Kathir quotes in his tafsir of 9:5 > Narrated Ibn 'Umar: Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) said: "I have been ordered (by Allah) to fight against the people until they testify that none has the right to be worshipped but Allah and that Muhammad is Allah's Messenger (ﷺ), and offer the prayers perfectly and give the obligatory charity, so if they perform that, then they save their lives and property from me except for Islamic laws and then their reckoning (accounts) will be done by Allah." **[ [Bukhari](https://sunnah.com/bukhari:25) ]** And again, there is the omission of the Jizya option. While in the first Hadith it says polytheists can be offered the option of Jizya. So im confused can polytheists pay the Jizya or not?(thanks)

It's Sunnah to close and lock windows and doors after sunset. Is there a set time after sunset when it becomes ok within the Sunnah to re-open them?

after your baby's birth, as far as I know that, need to give Adhan baby's ear, some say firstly need to feed honey, doctor say feed milk (Mother). also There are many prejudices in different society .. **Question:** I am looking for that , what is islam say or is there any islamic view ? or how to deal with baby and mothers according the islam (Hadith, Fiqh) etc..

The Hadith about Musa or Moses (pbuh) and the Angel of death can widely be found in Hadith collections (at least sunnah.com gives 4 search results) here just the two major sources: > Abu Huraira reported that the Angel of Death was sent to Moses (peace be upon him) to inform of his Lord's summons. When he came, he (Moses) boxed him and his eye was knocked out. He (the Angel of Death) came back to the Lord and said: You sent me to a servant. who did not want to die. Allah restored his eye to its proper place (and revived his eyesight), and then said: Go back to him and tell him that if he wants life he must place his hand on the back of an ox, and he would be granted as many years of life as the number of hair covered by his hand. He (Moses) said: My Lord what would happen then He said: Then you must court death. He said: Let it be now. And he supplicated Allah to bring him close to the sacred land. Thereupon Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) said: If I were there, I would have shown you his grave beside the road at the red mound. http://sunnah.com/muslim/43/206 > Narrated Abu Huraira: The angel of death was sent to Moses and when he went to him, Moses slapped him severely, spoiling one of his eyes. The angel went back to his Lord, and said, "You sent me to a slave who does not want to die." Allah restored his eye and said, "Go back and tell him (i.e. Moses) to place his hand over the back of an ox, for he will be allowed to live for a number of years equal to the number of hairs coming under his hand." (So the angel came to him and told him the same). Then Moses asked, "O my Lord! What will be then?" He said, "Death will be then." He said, "(Let it be) now." He asked Allah that He bring him near the Sacred Land at a distance of a stone's throw. Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) (p.b.u.h) said, "Were I there I would show you the grave of Moses by the way near the red sand hill." http://sunnah.com/bukhari/23/95 - How can this Hadith be explained? - Is it really authentic? - I mean how can such a person like a Prophet and Messenger be willing to live and even attack the Angel of death? - Shouldn't he accept that his lifetime has ended instead of -as it seems- opposing to Allah's wish? - How can the expansion of lifetime be explained? - Is it a deal with Allah and why should Allah make such a deal ...?

I have seen many times the congregation time for fajr on 29th Shabaan is 5:40 AM and 1st Ramadan its 5:10/15 AM. Similarly the time for 29th Ramadan 5:00 AM and 1st Shawwal 5:20 AM. Other days the time difference from day to day relative to sun is only 5 minutes. But when ramadan comes they pray early. Azaan times also change like congregation time in Ramadaan. Do they have something specific to pray early in ramadan or has abu hanifah given any instructions to do that? Doesnt this amount to hypocrisy in applying different rules to suit your ease?

Watching this [video](https://youtu.be/G9A5yPhE2Jo?list=PLYO6Oz7uwCSjdlPsyDXgDOf5t2_IfBky3) (Timestamp: 46:37 - 48:00) about the Signs of the day of Judgement Sheikh Yasir Qadhi mentions that there is a hadith in Mustadrak Al Hakim in which Battle of Jamel is prophecised. The hadith basically says that the Prophet pbuh, A'isha R.A. and Ali R.A. are sitting in the same room and the Prophet Pbuh talks to Ali R.A. and asks him that if there is to be a disagreement between you and A'isha (R.A) then return her safely from where she came. This Hadith according to the Sheikh refers to a prophecy about the Battle of Jamel (Battle of the camel) as Ali R.A.returned A'isha R.A. safely after the battle. I was also wondering if anyone knows which hadith this is, and if the collection is available online?

Can someone shed some light on the variant below : >Ukaz, Majanna and Dhul-Majaz were marketplaces in the Pre-Islamic period of ignorance. When Islam came, Muslims felt that marketing there might be a sin. So, the Divine Inspiration came: "There is no harm for you to seek the bounty of your Lord (in the seasons of Hajj)." (2.198) **Ibn `Abbas recited the Verse in this way**. (Sahih al-Bukhari 2050 Book 34, Hadith 4) Can this mode of recitation be considered abrogated?

The hadith: >It was narrated that Abu’d-Darda’ said: The Messenger of Allah (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “Allah has sent down the disease and the remedy, and He has created a remedy for every disease, so seek treatment (of illness) but do not treat (illness) with anything that is haraam.” Narrated by Abu Dawood, 3874; Islamqa says: >It is classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh Abi Dawood. But Sunnah.com says : >Da'if (Al-Albani) I'm confused. Plz try answer with reference.

I was praying Isha and I suddenly forgot how many rakat I prayed but I think I was on the 4th. I genuinely am not sure though. Since I wasn't sure, I did sajda sahw at the end before taslim. Was this correct?

When this question is asked, [Muslim 1623](https://sunnah.com/muslim:1623f) is quoted on Islamic websites. But in the Hadith, the prophet (pbuh) only asks if the man has more sons. Does that mean it’s permissible to treat daughters differently?

When two people want to pray in jama’ah and there is no third person available, the Imaam (leader) stands on the left and the muqtadi (follower) stands on the right, a few inches behind the Imaam and they start. If a third person arrives after they begin their salaah, what should he do to join the congregation? Where should he place himself?

How can one be a feminist and yet be a Muslim? I have seen some Muslim women who are feminists but pure feminists have given points from Quran to me trying to show a Muslim women can not be feminist. Please guide me. Thanks. EDIT: Since people asked me some details so here is one case. A feminist women considers herself equal to men in ALL forms.