I would like to ask for some advice. I am married alhamdulillah but i still live with my family. My family isnt very religious and they didnr want my islamic marriage to happen, i am hanafi and i ended up getting it done due to fear of Allah and that caused major issues with my mom, she wanted me to get a divorce and id now forbidding me from seeing my husband due to fear of us being intimate together. With all that being said its causing major resentment from my husband and mom. My mom wants me to travel with her to the middle east to help her with my brothers treatment due to his autism, her husband ( my parents are divorced) has work and cant travel with her so the obligation is falling on me to travel with her. My husband is telling me he doesnt want me to go travel without a mahram or without him, he also cant travel due to his work. He is saying he doesnt trust that my mom will not put me in a situation where i will be in something he wont like and he told me you can go but im unhappy with this, on the other hand im being called selfish by my mom and is saying that Allah will never give me success and she wont ask me for anything no more. Im stuck in the situation and not knowing what to do. Please advice me.

Assalamu aleykum ikhwan I have a question I know that a lot of scholars said that it's allowed to marry off your little daughter without her consent but is it allowed that the girl when she becomes an adult to cancel that marriage what does the ijma of the scholars say about it?

Hi everyone this is going to be a long read to please bear with me I try to make it as short as possible. I am a muslim girl from a household of 7 siblings my dad has 2 wifes my mom and then I have a step-mother and 2 step-siblings. My mom is British so I have always enjoyed the British culture and have been in the UK for nearly 10 years but before my dad worked in Saudi Arabia, and that's where it all started. My own brother sexually abused me for a duration of 5/6 years it started when I was 7. He use to buy me things like phones, take me out and buy cloths etc and do stuff to me in exchange, he never went in but always tried to put stuff etc in my behind and forced me to watch inappropriate content. I never liked it, I never wanted it but I was young and my family was never close, my mom and dad didnt really care about me or tought me anything or the whole family, no one is close, no one cares about each other. I had no support to tell anyone and never felt safe. It came out last year and no one believed me, not even my mom which is what hurts the most. I want her to not speak to him, or forgive him, or call or have any association with my brother because of what he did to me. My mom is old and doesnt know half the time what day it is. I tried to forgive her because after my sisters visted me and I told the full story they believed me but I didnt want to have to say it all for someone to believe me. They convinced my mom but its not genuine why didnt she believe me when I told her. My dad also found out but didnt call me, or didnt call my husband (who already knew), didn't message or visit me which also makes me so angry. My mom says she believes me but I dont actually think she does, when I visit her its so fake she thinks it's all gone away but doesn't want to talk about the actual subject, my brother, who abused me, used to live with us at my mom's house and I hate visiting because it triggers me. I went a while ago and when I left i cried my eyes out to my husband, i am just to angry and hate the house and my mom why didnt she believe me why is she still talking to him I just dont know what to do. Best case scenario I want her to talk to me about it and tell me she believes me and I want her to cut ties with that monster. But I know she wont do that as 'it her son' but I just dont know how to handle this. My husband has been through this with me and if it wasnt for his support, I dont know what i would be doing. He is very understanding, this issue has effected our relationship and it hard at the moment. Any advice would be really appreciated.

The Hadith what Abu Hurairah said to all of us. Is the "your mother" part specifically tied to the specific sahaba where Muhammed peace be upon him said your mother 3 times then father. I would like to know because it seems the Grammer used there seemed specific to the sahaba. And if it should be a general rule for all of ummah to prioritize mother. Even if you father clearly one who almost dies working all day?

Is it mandatory to have kids after marriage? What is the ruling on this in Islam?
I am asking this question in terms of couples who are perfectly healthy and can have babies but still choose not to have one their whole life.

My mother refuses marriage with a girl (my cousin's sister in law). She says the girl's status is not same as me, and she lives in a village, that means my family is only concern to the social status. However, we got married in front of quazi and in that occasion two of my wife's cousins were present, and there were witnesses also, but we still didn't announce our marriage to our family members because they will got hurt. We thought our family issue will be managed, and we will get married again by their permission, but the scenario is different and not as we thought; my guardian is too strict and they are not allowing me to do so. - If I want to listen to my family then I'll have to divorce (secretly) that girl. - If I don't then I'll have to announce the marriage to society. *Question*: Is our marriage valid? The marriage is already done by papers, although the marriage is not valid by Allah. So the papers/kabin is just like an agreement now, not kabin (my understanding). This question is a continuation from https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/30869/17163

In Islam, children are considered sinless and under Allah’s mercy until they reach the age of puberty [1] ,[2] . However, some children suffer from painful and fatal diseases such as Tay-Sachs Disease , Canavan Disease , or Spinal Muscular Atrophy (Type 1) , and pass away without ever reaching the age of accountability. These conditions cause immense physical suffering, even though these children cannot be tested morally or spiritually, as they are sinless. The Quran states, “Allah does not burden a soul beyond its capacity” (Quran 2:286) . For the children described above, if this burden is not a test for them, **to which part of their existence does this burden apply**, given that their physical suffering clearly exceeds their capacity?

> *EDIT*: I am putting a bounty on this question. Therefore I added references and precisions to address the comments (some of which, I > believe, seem to have been posted without reading this question). This _may_ seem like a question that was answered [here](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/22887/what-are-the-rights-of-un-married-girls-to-choose-husband-in-islam/22890#22890) , or [here](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/12042/is-forced-marriage-to-a-religious-man-allowed/12086#12086) , or [here](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/29816/forcefully-married) (links from this site). But I looked everywhere, and no, none of these, or any other sites I found, would answer my question. All answers, all hadiths, all sources say that the consent of the girl is mandatory for the marriage to be valid **and** that her silence is a mark of agreement. As treated in [this question](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/22982/does-islam-support-pedophilia-or-child-marriages/23473#23473) , marriage with an infant girl, no matter how young, is allowed. (Yes, I am aware that **sexual penetration** is not permitted - see question 2, below). I am talking solely about the **marriage contract**. That is also confirmed [here](https://islamqa.info/en/146882) , with more than ample references and links to other sources. I cite here some of that link: > Ibn Qudaamah (may Allah have mercy on him) said in al-Sharh > al-Kabeer, 7/386: > > With regard to females, the father **may give** his minor, virgin daughter > who has not yet reached the age of nine in marriage, and there is **no > difference of opinion** concerning that, if he gives her in marriage to > someone who is compatible. Ibn al-Mundhir said: **All of those scholars** > from whom we acquired knowledge **unanimously agreed** that it is > permissible for a father to give his minor daughter in marriage if he > arranges her to someone who is compatible, and it is permissible for > him to do that even **if she is reluctant**. End quote. Now, to be clear: yes, a girl who is old enough to understand the situation must be asked, and if she says no, the marriage cannot occur as it would be forced and therefore invalid (since her consent is mandatory). All the sources and references I looked up agreed on that. The marriage of an infant, however, can be decided by her father because her father has the right to make that decision in her stead, much like he can manage her money in her stead, until she comes of age. So the marriage of an infant is allowed, but sexual penetration should be postponed "until she is physically able to bear intercourse"-quote from link above. One should insist, at this point, that "physically able to bear intercourse" does **not** mean "puberty", since intercourse with prepubescent girls *is* allowed (see all exegeses of [this verse](http://www.altafsir.com/Tafasir.asp?tMadhNo=0&tTafsirNo=73&tSoraNo=65&tAyahNo=4&tDisplay=yes&UserProfile=0&LanguageId=2)) . It simply means what it says: able to bear penetration. Getting back to the marriage **contract**, which is the main point of this question: if the girl is too young to protest, since she could not have possibly given her consent and remained "silent", she would grow up into a relationship and a situation that she did not choose. And even if sexual intercourse is postponed, she would eventually be subject to it. How can that marriage *not* be considered *forced* ? That was the main question of this thread. However, if you have answers, *and sources*, to the following additional questions, I would be very grateful. I looked for a some years now, I read all the books I could find in three languages, and I did not find what I was looking for. 1. If a girl that was married when she was 6 months old grows up and reaches puberty, can she un-marry on the grounds that she did not give her consent when she was a baby? I know that in Islam, a girl cannot divorce, only the man can, but I know she *can* make her case to a judge and in some cases the judge can side with her if the husband is unsuitable. But let us suppose her husband is very kind, very religious, very faithful, can provide for her and generally satisfies absolutely all conditions for a good husband. Can a judge allow the divorce *solely* on the basis that she did not give her consent? Did this ever happen? 2. As said above, sexual penetration is *specifically* only allowed when "she is physically able to bear intercourse", but are other forms of sexual pleasure allowed ? This is crude, I know, but there should be no "haya'" (shyness, حياء) in religion, and I have no way of making myself understood otherwise: For example, can a man masturbate with her hands or thighs? can he kiss her like he would kiss a grown woman? Can he touch her? Those are pleasures that "her body can bear". The only Hadiths I could find mentioned penetration, not other, one would say "non intrusive", forms of pleasures. I know Khomeini says so in his Tahrirolvasyleh, but he offers no sources, only he opinion, and that is not enough. On the other hand, the other sources I could find clearly talk about intercourse (when they say the man should wait). They do not, however, forbid such things as foreplay, kissing, and other forms of non-penetrating pleasures. I am looking for such references. 3. If the answer is no, then I have a follow up question. As I understand it, marriage in Islam has two main justifications: The first is to provide a legal frame into which a family can be built - kids brought up, etc. The second justification is to provide a legal frame into which sex can be had (to avoid fornication). Marriage to a child does not satisfy the first justification -since the girl is unable to have kids before puberty - but *could* satisfy the second justification. However, if the answer to question 2 is no, if even the second justification is out of the picture, what is the wisdom of marrying a child? Finally, and this is important, please understand that this is **not** a question about the marriage of the prophet with Aicha. All questions asked on that matter were answered time and time again. Please only restrict the answers to *general* Islamic rules that apply to everyone. Also, a gentle reminder: We agree that forced marriage is forbidden. If you know anyone who can answer, please do let them know. Second EDIT: I just would like to add that this is not a question about paedophilia in Islam (for which ample discussion has been had [here](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/22982/does-islam-support-pedophilia-or-child-marriages?lq=1)) . Please do not debate the "different cultural perceptions of readiness and maturity for sexual relations", it would be besides the point. I am sorry for being firm on this, but it is a question that haunts me since I found out about this subject and I would be saddened if the discussion goes astray. Third EDIT: It has been brought to my attention that question 1, above, is not clear regarding what I meant by "a woman cannot get a divorce, a man can". What I meant was "cannot get *automatically*" a divorce, unlike the man who decides alone if he wants to divorce, a woman's initiating of a divorce is known as خلع or (khul'a) and is not the same thing as a divorce (in that her saying "I divorce you" is not enough). Although this misunderstanding is not critical to the overall question, I needed to add it to avoid having the discussion go astray.

As-Salamu 'Alaykum brothers, I have a pressing Question to ask in regards to the following verses of the Quran: > "O believers! Do not take your parents and siblings as trusted allies if they choose disbelief over belief. And whoever of you does so, they are the ˹true˺ wrongdoers" 9:23 > "And We have commanded people to ˹honour˺ their parents. Their mothers bore them through hardship upon hardship, and their weaning takes two years. So be grateful to Me and your parents. To Me is the final return."31:14 > "But if they pressure you to associate with Me what you have no knowledge of,1 do not obey them. Still keep their company in this world courteously, and follow the way of those who turn to Me ˹in devotion˺. Then to Me you will ˹all˺ return, and then I will inform you of what you used to do." 31:15 There are many other verses too that pertain to this matter. But my situation is that my Father is not a Muslim and he is a civil servant in the Airforce, and my Wife's Father is a polytheist (a Christian) and he works for a defense contractor. Doesn't this mean that I am not allowed to love them? there are so many other verses that talk about this, but I'm also confused because Allah also commands us to love our parents even if they are disbelievers. Please help me figure this out.

Bukhari 3208‏ : > *‘Allah's Messenger (ﷺ), the true and truly inspired said, "(The matter of the Creation of) a human being is put together in the womb of the mother in forty days, and then he becomes a clot of thick blood for a similar period, and then a piece of flesh for a similar period. Then Allah sends an angel who is ordered to write four things. He is ordered to write down his (i.e. the new creature's) deeds, his livelihood, his (date of) death, and whether he will be blessed or wretched (in religion). **Then the soul is breathed into him**.’* Now, from what I’ve read, most jurists say that the fetus becomes fully human at 120 days (I think Malikis are the only ones who believe it’s 40). They site the Hadith mentioned above but doesn’t the majority interpretation contradict the Quran and science? The Hadith states that Man is ‘gathered’ or ‘yujma’a’ in the womb of his mother for 40 days, he then becomes an ‘alaqah’ (for a disputed period, the Hadith says ‘mithla thalika’), he then finally becomes a ‘mudhgah’. The issue with the majority opinion which interprets the ‘gathering’ stage as being a separate one amongst the other two with each stage lasting for 40 days is that scientifically, such a period doesn’t exist. For example, one cannot be male and female discharge (which is what the ‘gathering’ refers to in the majority opinion) for 40 days. By such a period, the child is already an embryo. The same thing goes for the ‘alaqah’ stage, you cannot possibly be an ‘alaqah’ at 80 days because the child is already an advanced and developing fetus with bones and a face. And this is all especially true with the ‘mudgha’ stage which actually refers to the stage where the child is an embryo, but misinterpretation makes it into a 120 day baby. It also contradicts the Quran in 23:14 : > *‘ Then We developed the drop into a clinging clot ˹of blood˺, then developed the clot into a lump ˹of flesh˺, then developed the lump into bones, then clothed the bones with flesh, then We brought it into being as a new creation.1 So Blessed is Allah, the Best of Creators.’* From the Quran, the ‘mudgha’ stage is when the child is but a lump of flesh with only a spine (resembling something that is chewed) and it precedes the stage when the baby develops into a fetus with bones. Obviously, the popular interpretation of the Hadith contradicts the Quran by claiming the child is merely an embryo at 120 days despite the fact the Quran says the embryonic or ‘mudgha’ stage precedes the fetal stage. So, if that interpretation contradicts facts, then why is it still a majority opinion?

As-salamu alaykum. I want to start off by giving some context to my situation. I am a revert that lives in a non Muslim family. For some reason my parents are heavily against me being a Muslim so for the time being I am practicing in secret. My parents have been pressuring me and my brother into buying a house under me and my brother’s name for almost a year now. About 5 months ago I caved in without thinking of the consequences and went along with what they wished and took a riba based mortgage. My parents helped with the down payment contributing 150,000 dollars while I made a contribution of 23,000 dollars. At the time of this taking place my faith was very weak and I was not practicing Islam at all. I wasn’t praying, reading the Quran or doing anything as a Muslim. Alhamdulilah, recently I have found myself faith again and I have realized the grave mistake that I have committed. I would really like to hear some advice as to what I should do because this is really bothering me.

okay so a bit of context my mom and dad are divorced and my dad is in Africa my parents have been divorced since I was around 3 my mom took us with her to America and their getting back together and their both in Africa right now and they won’t be back until after my birthday and my dad really excited because it’s going to be his first time giv8ng me a birthday gift and my mom said she’ll send me a 100 dollars and I tried telling my dad that I don’t want anything but he’s insistent and if I tell him it’s because I think it’s haram his going to say I’m overthinking it and if I say I don’t want anything he’s going to think that I’m mad their not going to be here for my birthday and my moms going to do the same and I have a hard time telling them no

Genesis 1:28 in the Bible states: > God blessed them and said to them, "**Be fruitful and increase in number**; fill the earth and subdue it. Rule over the fish in the sea and the birds in the sky and over every living creature that moves on the ground." (See also Christianity.SE .) A similar verse occurs after Noah's flood in Genesis 9:7 . In Christianity, these are generally interpreted to mean "make lots of babies and populate the Earth". I'm wondering if Islamic scripture has an equivalent to this, i.e., something encouraging Muslims to reproduce. Statistics indicate Muslims are reproducing rapidly, even faster than Christians. **Question**: Does Islamic scripture have an equivalent to "be fruitful and increase in number"? I didn't find an answer to this on a related question on Quora , which is mostly a list of speculation. One (seemingly anti-Islam) answer writes: *"Bacche Allah ke den hain", means "A child is a consent of Allah"*, but I don't know what this means.

Good day to all! I have been looking after my sick mother for many years, she is in a wheelchair. I love my mother very much and try to help her, although it is not easy. Tell me, will I receive some kind of reward for this as a good deed, or forgiveness of sins? Or is this my duty and therefore we do not receive a reward.

What is the punishment in this world for stealing from one's parents.

Is it appropriate for a 21-year-old daughter to sleep in the same room as her parents, on a separate bed, while they engage in a physical relationship? Does Islam or any ethical perspective provide guidance on whether this situation is acceptable in terms of privacy, modesty, and family boundaries? Additionally, if other rooms are available but the daughter is afraid of sleeping alone in the light, what alternative solutions can be considered to address her fear while maintaining proper privacy and boundaries?

As far as my limited understanding of Islam. A man should keep the balance between providing for his family (wife and children) while staying devoted to his Mother. My Mother once told me that a Son should be devoted and obey his mother no matter what. She gave me one example that "If a Mother asks his Son to get a divorce, then he should get a divorce, no questions asked". Although I am also aware that a divorce is the most hated permissible thing to Allah. So which one we should follow? Stay devoted and obey to the Mother to get a divorce, even though it will break a family and potentially break a child's future? Or stay committed to the marriage?

My wife's mother wishes to permanently live with us at our home. I feel uncomfortable with this as it would violate our privacy, reduce our freedom to travel and put a financial burden on me. What does Islam say about this matter, can I refuse or must I accept her wish?

Recently my father passed away and my mother needs a place to reside. I am married and i am the eldest daughter of three siblings. I have a sister and a brother that are both married. My siblings believe that my mother should stay with me as that is her wish. They are also both living with their mother in-law. My husband does not want my mother to stay with us and has threatened to divorce me should i accept this request. In his opinion it is not his responsibility to take this on as it is my brother's responsibility being her Waqueel. Should i remain obedient to my husband or am I obligated by Islamic law to take in my mother?

Salam everyone, This is a question that has been on my mind for quite a long time. I will present an example so that it makes more logical sense. I know that it is not permissible to disobey my parents unless they command me to do something that's against Islamic teachings. But what about teachings that don't affect Islam, but they do affect me. Like let's say I want to choose an IT field as my profession but my father, due to lack of knowledge, can't accept the fact that IT fields have a scope and orders me to go for medicine. Now I try to explain this, but he won't accept and is stubborn without any logic. This is something that I will have to go through all my life, I'll have to study a field that wasn't my choice, work in it even though I never wanted to. While I will be going through all of this, my father will not be affected in any way. Since this is a case that doesn't affect religion or causes me to go through something haram it is still something that causes me distress and on the other hand the one who had the right to chose this path for me now, plays no part in it. Does Islam really want me to obey my father in this case? Doesn't it give him authority over a thing he doesn't have enough information to make a sane and logical decision?