Why did Allah(swt) not talk to other prophets like he did to musa (as) why did he send an angel i.e jibreel (as).

The Kursi extends over the universe (Quran 2:225) and hadith says it is like a ring in a desert compared to the Arsh, so how then will we see the latter on Qiyamah and how can Musa (as) hold onto one of its pillars (Bukhari)?

I heard this story from my local, but I got doubt about authencity of this story. Anyone please it is authentic or not. I searched online and I didn't found any except this https://www.sibtayn.com/en/index.php?option=com_content&view=article&id=7363:satan-and-pharaoh-talk&catid=48&Itemid=2069#:~:text=Pharaoh%20asked%20him%20why%20you,worse%20than%20you%20and%20I. It has narrated that Satan came to the door step of Pharaoh and knocked the door. Pharaoh told: who is knocking the door? Satan answered if you were God you would know who is knocking the door! Pharaoh told: come in Damned! Satan answered: a damned one joined the other damn! Pharaoh asked him why you have not prostrated Adam to avoid to being outcast and damned. Satan answered: Because someone like you was on descendant of Adam! Pharaoh asked: do you know anyone worse than you and I on the ground? Satan told: the jealous person is worse than you and I. Jealousy eats the good works as fire burns the wood.

Why did Musa عَلَيْهِ ٱلسَّلَامُ banish Samiri but only scold Harun عَلَيْهِ ٱلسَّلَامُ? > قَالَ يَـٰهَـٰرُونُ مَا مَنَعَكَ إِذْ رَأَيْتَهُمْ ضَلُّوٓا۟ ٩٢ > > Moses scolded ˹his brother˺, “O Aaron! What prevented you, when you saw them going astray, > > أَلَّا تَتَّبِعَنِ ۖ أَفَعَصَيْتَ أَمْرِى ٩٣ > > from following after me? How could you disobey my orders?” > > قَالَ يَبْنَؤُمَّ لَا تَأْخُذْ بِلِحْيَتِى وَلَا بِرَأْسِىٓ ۖ إِنِّى خَشِيتُ أَن تَقُولَ فَرَّقْتَ بَيْنَ بَنِىٓ إِسْرَٰٓءِيلَ وَلَمْ تَرْقُبْ قَوْلِى ٩٤ > > Aaron pleaded, “O son of my mother! Do not seize me by my beard or ˹the hair of˺ my head. I really feared that you would say, ‘You have caused division among the Children of Israel, and did not observe my word.’” > قَالَ فَمَا خَطْبُكَ يَـٰسَـٰمِرِىُّ ٩٥ > > Moses then asked, “What did you think you were doing, O Sâmiri?” > قَالَ فَٱذْهَبْ فَإِنَّ لَكَ فِى ٱلْحَيَوٰةِ أَن تَقُولَ لَا مِسَاسَ ۖ وَإِنَّ لَكَ مَوْعِدًۭا لَّن تُخْلَفَهُۥ ۖ وَٱنظُرْ إِلَىٰٓ إِلَـٰهِكَ ٱلَّذِى ظَلْتَ عَلَيْهِ عَاكِفًۭا ۖ لَّنُحَرِّقَنَّهُۥ ثُمَّ لَنَنسِفَنَّهُۥ فِى ٱلْيَمِّ نَسْفًا ٩٧ > >Moses said, “Go away then! And for ˹the rest of your˺ life you will surely be crying, ‘Do not touch ˹me˺!’1 Then you will certainly have a fate2 that you cannot escape. Now look at your god to which you have been devoted: we will burn it up, then scatter it in the sea completely.” Taha

An argument put forward by Christians: The quran says that Mary Is the daughter of imran and sister of aaron. Quran 19:28 > O sister of Aaron, your father was not a man of evil, nor was your mother unchaste." Quran 3:35 >[Mention, O Muhammad], when the wife of 'Imran said, "My Lord, indeed I have pledged to You what is in my womb, consecrated [for Your service], so accept this from me. Indeed, You are the Hearing, the Knowing." As we know from history, Miriam the sister of Moses is the sister of aaron as well as daughter of amram. Now they use this to claim that the quran mistook Miriam as the mother of isa and daughter of Joachim My questions are: 1) is imran universally identified as amram. Can we make a case for imran being Joachim 2) if so how do we reconcile the similarities between Miriam and Mary 3) if we use the hadith sahih muslim 2135 to reconcile the sister of haroon part , can anybody explain wether the hadith is trying to say if Mary (mother of isa (as)) had a brother named haroon(any historical verification?) or that Mary was referred to with the name of haroon. But we would still have to reconcile her as the daughter of amram. Please don't close this post claiming that it was previously answered because I have read each question and it does not answer each question I've asked.

The Hadith about Musa or Moses (pbuh) and the Angel of death can widely be found in Hadith collections (at least sunnah.com gives 4 search results) here just the two major sources: > Abu Huraira reported that the Angel of Death was sent to Moses (peace be upon him) to inform of his Lord's summons. When he came, he (Moses) boxed him and his eye was knocked out. He (the Angel of Death) came back to the Lord and said: You sent me to a servant. who did not want to die. Allah restored his eye to its proper place (and revived his eyesight), and then said: Go back to him and tell him that if he wants life he must place his hand on the back of an ox, and he would be granted as many years of life as the number of hair covered by his hand. He (Moses) said: My Lord what would happen then He said: Then you must court death. He said: Let it be now. And he supplicated Allah to bring him close to the sacred land. Thereupon Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) said: If I were there, I would have shown you his grave beside the road at the red mound. http://sunnah.com/muslim/43/206 > Narrated Abu Huraira: The angel of death was sent to Moses and when he went to him, Moses slapped him severely, spoiling one of his eyes. The angel went back to his Lord, and said, "You sent me to a slave who does not want to die." Allah restored his eye and said, "Go back and tell him (i.e. Moses) to place his hand over the back of an ox, for he will be allowed to live for a number of years equal to the number of hairs coming under his hand." (So the angel came to him and told him the same). Then Moses asked, "O my Lord! What will be then?" He said, "Death will be then." He said, "(Let it be) now." He asked Allah that He bring him near the Sacred Land at a distance of a stone's throw. Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) (p.b.u.h) said, "Were I there I would show you the grave of Moses by the way near the red sand hill." http://sunnah.com/bukhari/23/95 - How can this Hadith be explained? - Is it really authentic? - I mean how can such a person like a Prophet and Messenger be willing to live and even attack the Angel of death? - Shouldn't he accept that his lifetime has ended instead of -as it seems- opposing to Allah's wish? - How can the expansion of lifetime be explained? - Is it a deal with Allah and why should Allah make such a deal ...?

I came across a post where Allah tells Musa alaihisalam that He sends daughters to earth when He is the most happy. Does this narration come from a verified source? > Once Hazrat Moosa (A.S) asked Allah (SWT). .O Allah what do you do > when you are happy. .?
Allah (SWT) said: 'When i'm happy i make it > rain. ."
Hazrat Moosa (A.S) asked again...'What you do when you > are mch happy . .??
Allah (SWT) said: 'I send guests. ."
> Hazrat Moosa (A.S) then asked "What do you do when you are happy the > most??"
Allah (SWT) replied "I CREATE DAUGHTERS". . [My Source](https://www.facebook.com/WomenInMuslimWorld/posts/410885719020164)

The conversation between Prophet moses and Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) is well documented during the meraj of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). Did the following conversation take place on meraj of prophet moses? > The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "Adam and Moses argued with each other. Moses said to Adam. 'O Adam! You are our father who disappointed us and turned us out of Paradise.' Then Adam said to him, 'O Moses! Allah favored you with His talk (talked to you directly) and He wrote (the Torah) for you with His Own Hand. Do you blame me for action which Allah had written in my fate forty years before my creation?' So Adam confuted Moses, Adam confuted Moses," the Prophet (ﷺ) added, repeating the Statement three times. Sahih al-Bukhari 6614

This question https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/40036/did-earlier-prophets-also-travel-on-buraq tells implicitly that earlier prophets do isra (journey by land) There is no further information whether isra was succeeded by meraj in their times. Can the following passage in the report recorded by bukhari be construed as proof for meraj of prophet moses in his time? > Moses said (to Allah), "O Lord! I thought that none would be raised up above me." - Bukhari 7517

In this verse, https://quran.com/7/143 , Prophet Musa requested Allah SWT to reveal Himself to him so that he can see Allah. Later this ayat tells that when Allah came up on mountain Sinai at the appointed time, it was crumbled to dust and His presence was so strong (I have been told that there was too much bright light) that Prophet Musa fell unconscious and could not see him. My question is that if Allah SWT is all strong and all supreme, He could have simply revealed Himself in a way that could have been perceptible by Prophet Musa. Allah SWT could have controlled the crumbling of the mountains and could have prevented the unconsciousness of Prophet Musa. In the next verse, https://quran.com/7/144 , Allah SWT mentioned that He has favored Prophet Musa above all. To quote "...he(Prophet Musa) has already been favored by Allah over the people of his time through prophethood and direct communication with the Almighty." This shows the love of Allah for Prophet Musa. If Prophet Musa was so dear and close to Allah SWT, then why didn't He fulfill the request of Prophet Musa if He is all supreme? Why didn't Allah reveal Himself to one of his dearest Prophets on his request?

Christianity describes ten plagues of Egypt : (a) water into blood, (b) frogs, (c) lice, (d) mixture of wild animals or flies, (e) diseased livestock, (f) boils, (g) thunderstorm of hail and fire, (h) locusts, (i) darkness for three days, and (j) death of firstborn. In contrast, the Qur'an says: > So We sent upon them the flood and locusts and lice and frogs and blood as distinct signs, but they were arrogant and were a criminal people. > Qur'an 7:133 This difference motivates the question: **Question**: Does Qur'an 7:133 imply there were five plagues of Egypt? Qur'an 17:101 says *We had certainly given Moses nine evident signs*, but it seems likely this also includes miracles like his glowing hand and his staff. In the context of Prophet Musa, we also have: > So each We seized for his sin; and among them were those upon whom We sent a storm of stones, and among them were those who were seized by the blast [from the sky], and among them were those whom We caused the earth to swallow, and among them were those whom We drowned. And Allah would not have wronged them, but it was they who were wronging themselves. > Qur'an 29:40 Some (or all) of them don't seem like "plagues" (which would ordinarily be interpreted as a widespread catastrophe). They seem more localized and targeted. I'm not sure if these count.

The Islam page on RationalWiki seems to be in a state where it's simultaneously edited by people who have a pro-Islam bias and people who have an anti-Islam bias. It's current form has a section entitled "Muslims apologetic obfuscation", and quotes the Qur'an: > Because of that, **We decreed upon the Children of Israel that whoever kills a soul unless for a soul or for corruption [done] in the land - it is as if he had slain mankind entirely.** And whoever saves one - it is as if he had saved mankind entirely. And our messengers had certainly come to them with clear proofs. Then indeed many of them, [even] after that, throughout the land, were transgressors. > Qur'an 5:32 RationalWiki then writes: > So [the] Qur'an is referring to a verse in Jewish scripture, which is not the same as ordaining something to Muslims. My opinion is that this is an obtuse interpretation, but let's give this some consideration. **Question**: Is there a concrete reason that Qur'an 5:32 applies to modern-day Muslims, and not only to the "Children of Israel"? I've read various news articles quoting scholars quote this ayah as applying to all Muslims (perhaps after some terrorist atrocity). I'm also aware that there's other verses that prohibit specific kinds of murder (4:93 and 6:151 ).

In Al-Qasas 28:26 a woman advises her father to hire Musa (PBUH) to look after his flocks. She also mentions some of his qualities which make him suitable: > One of the women said, "O my father, hire him. Indeed, the best one > you can hire is the strong and the trustworthy." How did she know this about Musa (PBUH)?

> And the eminent among the people of Pharaoh said, "Will you leave > Moses and his people to cause corruption in the land and abandon you > and your gods?" [Pharaoh] said, "We will kill their sons and keep > their women alive; and indeed, we are subjugators over them." Quran 7:127 In this verse we can clearly see pharaoh had the chance to kill Musa As. Instead he totally ignored his people's advice and told them to kill the Children of Israel. **My question is nothing was preventing pharaoh to kill Musa As. But he didn't, it seems he has some soft side for Musa As. Any scholar said anything about this. Any reason for pharaoh being soft towards Musa As?**

While going through the below question: Can Maryam be considered a prophet even though she's a female? Why or why not? I came across this comment: > You may want to include the stance of Maryam as one of the four women > who completed iman, and **that revelations occurred to other than > prophets ad in the mother of Mussa.** ***Can someone elaborate on it to help us understand it better.***

First of all, I apologize for the length of this question. But I think this is a very important subject to think about. Majority of Muslims believe that Imran in the Quran is father of Mary. But I think muslims are making a mistake. For the following reasons, I think Imran in the Quran is the father of Musa (pbuh) and Harun (pbuh), not the father of Mary: 1) In the Jewish scriptures, the father of Musa (pbuh) and Harun (pbuh) is "Amram". *Amram married his father's sister Jochebed, who bore him Aaron and Moses. Amram lived 137 years. (Exodus 6:20)* 2) In the New Testament, Mary is a relative/cousin of Elizabeth, who is from the lineage of Aaron (Harun). So this means Imran (Amram) is the ancestor of Mary. 3) Ancient biblical manuscripts have shown that the father of Mary was named "Joachim", not "Amram", nor "Imran". 4) In the Quran, Allah refers to Mary (mother of Jesus) as the "Ubnata Imran" in Surah Tahrim, Ayah 12. "Ubnata Imran" literally translates to "Daughter of Imran", but in Arabic tradition, this can also mean "grand-daughter of Imran" or "great grand-daughter of Imran" or "female descendant of Imran". 5) In the Quran, Allah refers to Mary (mother of Jesus) as "Ukhtu Harun" in Surah Maryam, Ayah 28. "Ukhtu Harun" translates to "Sister of Harun". Anyone who understands the language of the Quran should know that "sister" in the Quran can also refer to female descendant. So Mary is the female descendant of Harun (pbuh) and Imran. Not the daughter of Imran. 6) In the Quran, the mother of Mary is unnamed but she is called "Umra'atu Imran" in Surah Imran, Ayah 33. According to the English translated Quran, this translates to "Wife of Imran". However, in Arabic, "Umra'atu Imran" can also mean "Woman of Imran". This could mean that Mary is not the daughter of Imran, but her descendant. 7) Ancient biblical manuscripts have shown that the father of Mary was named "Joachim", not "Amram", not "Imran". 8) Allah says in Surah Imran, Ayah 33: *God did choose Adam and Noah, the family of Abraham, and the family of Imran above all people (Quran 3:33)* According to most Islamic scholars, Imran in this ayah refers to Amram, the father of Musa (pbuh) and Harun (pbuh).

>Sahih International: And [recall] when Moses said to his people, "O my people, indeed you have wronged yourselves by your taking of the calf [for worship]. So repent to your Creator and **kill yourselves**. That is best for [all of] you in the sight of your Creator." Then He accepted your repentance; indeed, He is the Accepting of repentance, the Merciful.(2:54) What is the meaning of "*and kill yourself*"?

We know from verses like this one that Musa (alayhi salaam), like the previous nations believe, did indeed receive tablets with some fiqh (rulings) from Allah (azza wa jal) when he visited Him in Tuwa. And that he broke the tablets. Do we have any verses or ahadith that explicitly mention what was listed on those tablets? I can't recall ever reading this.

In surat al-Qassas a long passage tells us the story of Musa (). In the part telling what happened after reaching Madyan, we learn that he married one of the daughters of the old man under the condition to fulfill either a term of 8 years or 10 years. But the story no where tells us which of both he has achieved. Allah the Almighty says: > He said, "Indeed, I wish to wed you one of these, my two daughters, on [the condition] **that you serve me for eight years**; **but if you complete ten, it will be [as a favor] from you**. And I do not wish to put you in difficulty. You will find me, if Allah wills, from among the righteous." (27) [Moses] said, "**That is [established] between me and you. Whichever of the two terms I complete - there is no injustice to me**, and Allah , over what we say, is Witness." (28) And **when Moses had completed the term** and was traveling with his family, he perceived from the direction of the mount a fire. He said to his family, "Stay here; indeed, I have perceived a fire. Perhaps I will bring you from there [some] information or burning wood from the fire that you may warm yourselves." (28:27-29 ) Do we know at the end which of these terms Musa could fulfill?

In one TV series, this was being told, something I have never heard before, and thought the script writers combined various facts and narrations into one mix as they saw fit. Still, I would ask whether it has been mentioned anywhere (it could be the case that it has been borrowed from Jewish narrations): So the Pharaoh asks Moses, “Who is your Lord?” and Moses replied, “My Lord gives life and takes life.” Pharaoh asked for slaves. He gave a bag of gold to one, and killed the other, and said: “I gave life to one, killed the other, I am the Lord!” And Moses, showing the dead man, said, “Then give life to this one!”