My question is like hindus are polytheists like pagan Arabs so if we somewhere in future conquer india how would they be treated will they be given a dhimmi status or not.

In this Hadith prophet is allowing the polytheists the option of Jizyah: >...When you meet your enemies who are polytheists, invite them to three courses of action... Invite them to (accept) Islam.... If they refuse to accept Islam, demand from them the Jizya....**[ [Muslim](https://sunnah.com/muslim:1731a) ]** But in The Sword Verse, (it appears to me) the muslims are ordered to fight until the polytheists until those polytheists convert to Islam, and the jizya is not given as an option: >And when the sacred months have passed, then kill the polytheists wherever you find them and capture them and besiege them and sit in wait for them at every place of ambush. But if they should repent, establish prayer, and give zakah, let them [go] on their way. Indeed, Allah is Forgiving and Merciful. **[ 9:5 ]** And further, Ibn Kathir quotes in his tafsir of 9:5 > Narrated Ibn 'Umar: Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) said: "I have been ordered (by Allah) to fight against the people until they testify that none has the right to be worshipped but Allah and that Muhammad is Allah's Messenger (ﷺ), and offer the prayers perfectly and give the obligatory charity, so if they perform that, then they save their lives and property from me except for Islamic laws and then their reckoning (accounts) will be done by Allah." **[ [Bukhari](https://sunnah.com/bukhari:25) ]** And again, there is the omission of the Jizya option. While in the first Hadith it says polytheists can be offered the option of Jizya. So im confused can polytheists pay the Jizya or not?(thanks)

> Sahih Bukhari Volume 3, Book 43, Number 656: > >Allah's Apostle said, "The Hour will not be established until the son of Mary (i.e. Jesus) descends amongst you as a just ruler, he will break the cross, kill the pigs, and **abolish the Jizya tax**. Money will be in abundance so that nobody will accept it (as charitable gifts). Since Jizya is abolished the verse 9:29 will have only two options to people of the book. > Fight against those who (1) believe not in Allah, (2) nor in the Last Day, (3) nor forbid that which has been forbidden by Allah and His Messenger (4) and those who acknowledge not the religion of truth (i.e. Islam) among the people of the Scripture (Jews and Christians), **until they pay the Jizyah** with willing submission, and feel themselves subdued.(9:29) Can we conclude people of book will be only given option of Islam or death under jesus?

Is there any Nisab for Jizyah on Dhimmis just like there is Nisab for Zakat on Muslim as per Fuqaha? **Note: Prefer To Know Hanbali Fiqh Rulings**

I came across this claim: > Our school (Shafi'i) insists upon the payment of the poll-tax by sickly persons, old men, even if decrepit, blind men, monks, workmen, and poor persons incapable of exercising a trade. As for people who seem to be insolvent at the end of the year, the sum of the poll tax remained as debt to their account until they should become solvent." Imam nawawi My question is what is the official Shafi school opinion on who is exempt from paying Jizyah.

> Ma’mar reported: Some residents of the peninsula told me that some > people had embraced Islam, but it was not long until they became > apostates. Maymun ibn Mihran wrote to Umar Ibn Abdul Aziz, may Allah > have mercy on him, regarding them and Umar wrote back saying, “Let > them return to paying tribute and leave them alone.” > > Source: Muṣannaf ‘Abd al-Razzāq 18102 > > عَنْ مَعْمَرٍ قَالَ أَخْبَرَنِي قَوْمٌ مِنْ أَهْلِ الْجَزِيرَةِ أَنَّ > قَوْمًا أَسْلَمُوا ثُمَّ لَمْ يَمْكُثُوا إِلا قَلِيلا حَتَّى > ارْتَدُّوا فَكَتَبَ فِيهِمْ مَيْمُونُ بْنُ مِهْرَانَ إِلَى عُمَرَ بْنِ > عَبْدِ الْعَزِيزِ رحمه الله فَكَتَبَ إِلَيْهِ عُمَرُ أَنْ رُدَّ > عَلَيْهِمُ الْجِزْيَةَ وَدَعْهُمْ Muṣannaf ‘Abd al-Razzāq 18102 So why did Umar ibn Abdul Aziz let them Pay Jizya? Did he just want money or didn’t believe the punishment for apostasy was death?

I was wondering if Shafi school only allow people of the book to be Dhimmi and pay jizya is their a different opinion in the school that says all non Muslims can be Dhimmi. Also if this is true how did the Indonesias treat the Hindus and Buddhist as Indonesia practices the Shafi school and did they make them pay jizya

I’m confused as to who qualifies to be enslaved. People often say captives of war, but what exactly does that mean? The opposite forces? Civilians in the town raided? How would you differentiate between a captive and non-combatant? Also, when does the sultan enforce the jizya for the non-believer?, to my understanding Muslims cannot attack the ones who pay jizya, so let’s say the mujahideen attack a place, do they just keep collecting captives till the sultan tells them to stop?

As I understand, the status of Dhimmi can be enjoyed by any non-Muslim religion as far it has a pact or treaty with the Islamic government were it lives and recognizes the authority (submits if you will) by among other things paying Jizya. But as I have notice most historical examples were this happened refer to pre-existing religions such as Judaism, Christianity, Buddhism and Hinduism. Thus I wonder, to post-Islam religions can also be included on this deal? Cases like Sikhism, Bahaism, Mormonism, Rastafarianism, Wicca, Asatru and neo-Paganism in general, etc.? Or there will be something precluding such deals and/or against accepting Jizya from such movements as they came after the founding of Islam?

Lets say there are villages in settlements outside of dar al islam. Are muslim armies allowed to kill and enslave them by surprise if they are in dar al harb? Is asking them to convert or pay jizya a pre-requisite before attacking them? Are civilians of a settlement, tribe or village killed if they are non-combatants?

What are the consequences for non-Muslims living in a Muslim state if they refuse to pay the Jizya? According to Sahih Muslim : > If they refuse to accept Islam, demand from them the Jizya. If they > agree to pay, accept it from them and hold off your hands. If they > refuse to pay the tax, seek Allah's help and fight them. What does the Hadith mean by fight them? Does it involve blood, just seizure of property or enslavement of the women and children of the family? Please elaborate on all three (if applicable).

I mean fighting for the ridda wars at least seems obvious. People have refused to pay Zakat and became against the Muslim rulers by for example following the false prophets like Musailimah and Sajjah. But what is the correct justification (or historical background) for attacking 'Iraq? If these were preventive strikes, so how did the Muslims come to know about any attack or conspiracy? If not what was the motivation? I wonder if jizya played a role... Especially when one reads that many sahaba have became rich.

Scholars say that jizya is not obligatory for non Muslim women. Is their any sahih evidence for this.

I'm not trolling and I sincerely apologise if this question offends anyone. I also want to get it out of the way that I don't believe that all Muslims are violent and genocidal. I also don't believe that Islam is inherently violent and genocidal, and that is exactly why I'm asking this question, because I'm a bit confused about the situation between Islam and Israel and the Jews. There are certain groups of Muslims that seem to support total annihilation of Jews world-wide. (Eg. Hamas) It also seems to be a stock, politically incorrect joke in popular culture (eg. in the Sacha Baron Cohen movie "The Dictator" the main character is a parody of a middle-eastern dictator, and one part of his policies and agenda is to exterminate Jews). I understand that there is significant tension in the Holy Land between Jews and Muslims today and that blame can't be put all on one side. So I can kinda understand why certain groups would want to destroy Israel (not that I agree). What I don't understand is this push for global genocide. Doesn't the Qur'an promote peace and tolerance of "People of the Book"? I thought that a religious tax towards Jews was as bad as it is supposed to get? And I've heard that historically, Jews and Muslims have got on pretty well (Jews are even permitted to pray in Mosques!) My actual question: Is there a theological/religious justification for this recent push to exterminate Jews worldwide? (ie, is there some verse in the Quran which can be (mis)/interpreted to support this?) Or are these groups motivated purely by tribal vengeance and bloodlust?

As far as I know the Islamic state has mostly developed in the time of the caliphs and the later dynasties. But surely there must be some sources that might have guided and inspired what we now may call an Islamic state or government. A state always relies on a taxation system to pay clerks etc. so what other sources for state finance are there in Islam except for jizya (based on 9:29 ) and zakat (based on 9:60 )? Please provide sources from qur'an and sunnah (if possible) for these legal sources! > Fight those who do not believe in Allah or in the Last Day and who do not consider unlawful what Allah and His Messenger have made unlawful and who do not adopt the religion of truth from those who were given the Scripture - [fight] until they give the jizyah willingly while they are humbled. (9:29) > > Zakah expenditures are only for the poor and for the needy and for those **employed to collect** [zakah] and for bringing hearts together [for Islam] and for freeing captives [or slaves] and for those in debt and for the cause of Allah and for the [stranded] traveler - an obligation [imposed] by Allah . And Allah is Knowing and Wise. (9:60)

Sometime, somewhere I heard a story something like this from context: > In one Muslim country when leaders were realized that they is going to be defeated by enemy, they started returning collected taxes from non-Muslims, justifying that, they can't provide them security anymore. After seeing that greatness, non-Muslim troops joined to Muslims troops and they defeated enemy together. I love this story so much, and I love to narrate this so often. To be more convincing, I'd love to know source of this story and maybe just more historical fact about this or is this hadith or anything ?

It is mentioned in the Qur'an ([9:29](http://quran.com/9/29)) that, >Fight those who believe not in Allah nor the Last Day, nor hold that forbidden which hath been forbidden by Allah and His Messenger, nor acknowledge the religion of Truth, (even if they are) of the People of the Book, until they pay the Jizya with willing submission, and feel themselves subdued. Why it is necessary for non-Muslims to pay *Jizya*? Although females, children and the poor are exempted from it I do not find any justification for others. Please note that Muslims are required to pay *Zakah* but if they do not, there is no punishment for them doing so. But if any non-Muslim refuses to pay the *Jizya* he may lose all of his property, as mentioned in hadith ([Muslim:19:4294](http://www.sunnah.com/urn/242940)) : >If they refuse to accept Islam, demand from them the Jizya. If they agree to pay, accept it from them and hold off your hands. If they refuse to pay the tax, seek Allah's help and fight them.