What is the difference between these two writings of "Ibrahim" in Quran: # إِبۡرَٰهِيمَ # # إِبۡرَٰهِـۧمَ # In the first case like we can find many in chapter 3 (ali imran), long vowel of hi (هِ) is written as a letter ya (ي) sukoon. While in the second case (many in chapter al-baqarah), long vowel of hi (هِ) is written as a diacritic. Cmiiw. Is it all by intention (related to certain meanings)? Or is it interchangable and nothing to indicate by these writings?

How can Qiraat arise if the majority of the Quran was written in the Quraishi Dialect? I previously asked the same question but no reasonable answer. I might have misunderstood the meaning of the Hadeeth: **"If you disagree with Zaid bin Thabit at any point, write in the dialect of Quryaish. Verily, the Quran was revealed in their tongue."** Please, explain it to me, I really dont understand? Also, do we know that Uthman purposely allowed these differences?

What is the meaning of "jahileen" or "jahiloon"? especially in the context of below aaya of Sura Baqarah وَإِذْ قَالَ مُوسَىٰ لِقَوْمِهِۦٓ إِنَّ ٱللَّهَ يَأْمُرُكُمْ أَن تَذْبَحُوا۟ بَقَرَةًۭ ۖ قَالُوٓا۟ أَتَتَّخِذُنَا هُزُوًۭا ۖ قَالَ أَعُوذُ بِٱللَّهِ أَنْ أَكُونَ مِنَ ٱلْجَـٰهِلِينَ ٦٧ and also in below aaya of Sura Furqan وَعِبَادُ ٱلرَّحْمَـٰنِ ٱلَّذِينَ يَمْشُونَ عَلَى ٱلْأَرْضِ هَوْنًۭا وَإِذَا خَاطَبَهُمُ ٱلْجَـٰهِلُونَ قَالُوا۟ سَلَـٰمًۭا ٦٣ **I heard from a genius student that "jahil" also means emotional while i was thinking that "jahil"means ignorant(having lack of knowledge)**

This may be a stupid question but I’m new on my journey and was just wondering how each page of the Kitab fits its ayats so cleanly that no ayat continues onto the next page? Each page ends and starts with a new ayat. How was this organized?

In Quran it is mentioned that the bones are covered with muscles in early stage.But in Quran is it flesh(لحم) not muscle(عضلة).Is flesh and muscle in Arabic same or different?Is flesh comprehensive in this case?

We know Quran is a concise book, not a single word there is without reason. Every single word is decorated and managed like a pearl in necklace, and not a single word wasted but when you see the **Surah Rahman** a single ayah "Fabe-aiye alae ..." repeated 31 times. What could be the reason of using it again and again?

I've come across the claim that the first mushafs (suhuf?) did not include vowel marks and sometimes did not even consistently use other diacritical marks to distinguish consonants. An example of a page of a very early mushaf that lacks vowel marks is the [Sana'a manuscript](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sana 'a_manuscript). This leads to the questions: - When were consistent vowel marks and other diacritical marks added, according to Islamic lore? (Asking for historical evidence would be a better fit on [History](https://history.stackexchange.com/) , but if any is available, it will be interesting here as well.) - If we leave out all vowel marks from the current canonical text, are there passages that become ambiguous? As an example, I've heard the claim that at the beginning of surah [Rum](https://quran.com/30/) , one of the verses could then be read as either "the Romans will defeat" or "the Romans will be defeated". - Does early Islamic scholarship discuss these issues?

My focus here is on the translation of the word Ummah (أُمَّة) in Arabic, by which Allah attributed Ibraheem in verse (16:120 ). As shown below there are different interpretation in its translation: > إِنَّ إِبْرَهِيمَ كَانَ **أُمَّةً** > Sahih international and Muhsin Khan > Indeed, Abraham was a [comprehensive] **leader**,... . - while Pickthall and Dr. Ghali used the word "nation", - Yusuf Ali used the word "model" - and Shakir "exemplar". All these words could certainly fit to describe this prophet (), but my question is: What is the actual meaning of this word in this context and why was it used as an attribute of Ibraheem and how -if it actually does- does it differ from it usual meaning? Which was discussed before in: - https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/46012/what-makes-one-a-part-of-the-ummah - https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/7570/what-does-ummah-mean-in-islam Or is there a secret behind calling Ibraheem "ummah"?

I have gone through this verse and have read numerous exegesis but still I'm not able to comprehend this verse fully. What's the context of this verse and how does the verse saying "If Allah had willed to take a son, He may had chosen among his creation whoever He willed" negate the fact that Allah can't have a son?

I heard that there are totally 6666 ayats in Al-Quran. But, I counted in my own Quran and it has less than that. What is the actual number of ayats in Al-Quran?

Selam aleikum, I know, that one of the criteria’s of an accepted Qiraat is being mutawatir. (Ibn Al-Jazaris conditions) What exactly is meant with it and how many people are needed to make it mutawatir (in each generation)? So let’s say, there is a specific harf or some Ahruf in the recitation of the Prophet (saw), so he recited it and the companions heard it and then they learned it. Does this condition mean, that every single harf were heard by many companions (What number of companions is enough?) and then a Qiraat were made out of them and were recited by companions. Or Does this „mutawatir“ condition is counted after the forming of a Qiraat? Can someone clarify this. May Allah bless you.

I had to ask this question because exegists are in disagreement about the waqf in the verse 7 of chapter 3 whether the waqf is after "الا للہ" or "والراسخون فی العلم". The slight shifting of this waqf changes the meaning of ayah altogether. I have read tafseer of Ibn Kathir in which he tried to explain that may be this is due to different understanding of word "تاویل" leading the scholars towards different opinions. So were the rules of stopping developed later? Are there other similar instances in the Qur'an as well?

We know there are multiple Qira'at of the Qur'an derived from the original Seven Ahruf in some way. The most popular Qirat, the de facto Qur'an almost anywhere and especially online is the Hafs < Asim transmission. In some parts of Africa they use the Warsh < Nafi' Qur'an. Currently I am trying to obtain the most "authentic" Warsh Qira'at, _I think_ that would mean finding the manuscripts used today to produce Warsh Qur'ans What are they, where are they and are there online scans? thanks

I've noticed that in many masaahif ("mushafs"), certain words like "salah" and "riba" have an extra, unpronounced letter waw in them, such as Surah Baqarah, verse 3: The fifth word here is pronounced "salah," although the waw with the small alif above it is pronounced as an alif, not a waw. What's up with that? I recall one of my Arabic teachers mentioning that it's not permissible to rewrite words in the Qur'an (for cases like this -- removing silent letters), because the sahaba all agreed to write it this way during the time of Uthman. (That's tangential, it doesn't need to be discussed here.)

Consider these two lines: > الْحَمْدُ لِلَّهِ رَبِّ الْعَالَمِینَ and > ٱلْحَمْدُ لِلَّهِ رَبِّ ٱلْعَٰلَمِینَ As you can see, ٱلْعَٰلَمِینَ is spelled in two different forms. I took them from two different sites. One from Quran's Database , and the other from Recite Quran . As I'm watching their texts, they have many different spellings in different parts. I wonder, how many spellings and system of writings do we have for Quran? And I'm only interested in Arabic language. **Update**: Thank you for pointing me to the right direction. Now my question becomes as simple as: **how many rasm-al-mushaf do we have?**

> 1612 - أنا القاضي أبو بكر أحمد بن الحسن الحرشي نا أبو العباس محمد بن > يعقوب الأصم نا الحسن بن علي بن عفان ، نا أبو أسامة ، حدثني عمرو بن > ميمون ، قال : سمعت ابن حاضر أو أبا حاضر رجلا من الأزد يقول : سمعت ابن > عباس ، يقول : « إني لجالس عند معاوية إذ قرأ هذه الآية » وجدها تغرب في > عين حامية « فقلت ما تقرأ إلا ( حمئة (1) ) فقال معاوية لعبد الله بن > عمرو : كيف تقرأها ؟ قال : كما قرأتها يا أمير المؤمنين قال ابن عباس : > فقلت : في بيتي نزل القرآن . فأرسل معاوية إلى كعب فجاءه فقال : أين تجد > الشمس تغرب في التوراة يا كعب ؟ قال : أما العربية فأنتم أعلم بها وأما > الشمس فإني أجدها في التوراة تغرب في ماء وطين ، وأشار كعب بيده إلى > المغرب ، فقلت لابن عباس : أما إني لو كنت عندكما لرفدتك كيما تزداد به > بصرا في قوله ( حمئة ) فقال ابن عباس : » ما هو ؟ فقلت : فيما نأثر من > قول تبع فيما ذكر به ذا القرنين في تعلقه بالعلم واتباعه إياه : قوله بلغ > المشارق والمغارب يبتغي أسباب أمر من حكيم مرشد فرأى معاد الشمس عند > غروبها في عين ذي خلب وثأط حرمد قال ابن عباس : وما الخلب ؟ قلت : الطين > بكلامهم قال : فما الثأط ؟ قلت : الحمأة قال : وما الحرمد ؟ قلت : الأسود > ، قال : فدعا رجلا أو غلاما فقال : اكتب ما يقول هذا « (Source ) > > أبو أسامة عن عمرو بن ميمون قال : سمعت أبا حاضر أو ابن حاضر رجل من الأزد يقول : سمعت ابن عباس يقول : إنّي لجالس عند معاوية إذ قرأ هذه الآية : ( وجدها تغرب في عين حامية ) فقلت : ما نقرؤها إلاّ { حَمِئَةٍ } . فقال معاوية لعبد الله بن عمر : وكيف تقرؤها ؟ قال : كما قرأتها يا أمير المؤمنين . قال ابن عباس : فقلت : في بيتي نزل القرآن . فأرسل معاوية إلى كعب ، فجاءه فقال : أين تجد الشمس تغرب في التوراة يا كعب ؟ قال : أما العربية فأنتم أعلم بها ، وأما الشمس فإنّي أجدها في التوراة تغرب في ماء وطين . قال : فقلت لابن عباس : لو كنت عندكما لانشدت كلاماً تزداد به نصرة في قولك : { حَمِئَةٍ } . قال ابن عباس : فإذن ما هو ؟ فقلت : قول تبع (Source: Kashaf Wa-Al Bayan fee Tafsir al-Quran al-Thalabi on 18:86 )

In quran.com in [surah Nur ayat 33](https://quran.com/24:33) the word "yukrihhhunna": >يُكْرِههُّنَّ has a shaddah on the second H/ھ. However, I saw a manuscript from a friend of mine that has no shaddah on H/ھ. How could this be? **update** You can see a difference sample in this website, which is one of the well-known resources in Iran: https://wiki.ahlolbait.com/%D8%A2%DB%8C%D9%87_33_%D8%B3%D9%88%D8%B1%D9%87_%D9%86%D9%88%D8%B1

sorry if its a bit of a vague question I feel the title is enough but Just as an example Allah said: > Fight those who (do) not believe in Allah and not in the Day the Last, and not they make unlawful what Allah has made unlawful and His Messenger, and not they acknowledge (the) religion (of) the truth, from those who were given the Scripture, until they pay the jizyah willingly, while they (are) subdued. **[ Corpus Quran 9.29 ]** If you interpreted this verse only on the text, then you would identify all of the People of the Book as targets of Jihad and fight them All until they pay the Jizya whenever you are able to do so. But if you interpreted the verse in the context of revelation, then you would know it is revealed about the expedition of Tabuk against the Byzantines. you might interpret the command 9.29 only to apply 1. If there is a Powerful expansionist Kitabi empire next to the Muslims Or you might interpret the expedition of Tabuk as defensive because the prophet awaited the byzantines in Arabia, and then conclude 9.29 only applies in cases where a Kitabi nation threatens a Muslim Nation. And so on. My question is which is the correct methodology of Tafsir between interpreting the Quran solely from the Text and interpreting the Text in the context of the text’s Revelation

In surat an-Nisaa' we read (4:3 ): > And **if you fear that you will not deal justly with the orphan girls, then marry those that please you of [other] women, two or three or four**. But if you fear that you will not be just, then [marry only] one or those your right hand possesses. That is more suitable that you may not incline [to injustice]. It seems as if there's something missing here the verse jumps from the fear for being unjust to orphan girls -which was also discussed earlier in the surah- to marrying up to four women. I wonder what this missing information is! One also may notice that much later in the same surah we may find a resumption of the topic of orphan girls this time in context of marrying them (I'm unclear whether there's a link between both verses): > And they request from you, [O Muhammad], a [legal] ruling concerning women. Say, " Allah gives you a ruling about them and [about] what has been recited to you in the Book concerning the orphan girls to whom you do not give what is decreed for them - and [yet] you desire to marry them - and concerning the oppressed among children and that you maintain for orphans [their rights] in justice." And whatever you do of good - indeed, Allah is ever Knowing of it. (4:127 ) My question is: What is the link between marrying up to four women/girls and fearing to deal unjustly with orphan girls?

Okay. Quick question. What is the meaning of this hadeeth :- "If you disagree with Zaid bin Thabit at any point in the Quran, write it in the dialect of Quraish, **verily the Quran was revealed in their tongue**" Wasnt the Quran revealed in 7 different dialects at the same time? If so, if the Quran was revealed in the tongue of Quraish, where do the differences in dialects come from?