Is sunnah prayer from Allah or from muhammad (saw), because it is called sunnah and sunnah is related to muhammad ( saw).

I watched a video (I can't remember where I watched it) that says exchanging two different things of different prices is riba (interest) as per Islam, and it was told by the Prophet (Peace be upon him). I'll give some examples. 1. I give two $500 worth of phones to my friend and gain a laptop that is worth $1000. 2. I give two $500 worth of phones to my friend and gain a laptop that is worth $1500. 3. I create a mobile app worth $1000 and get a $1000 worth of laptop. 4. I create a mobile app worth $1200 and get a $1000 worth of laptop. How and when will these scenarios come under riba (interest) or not?

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إِنَّ اللَّهَ وَمَلَائِكَتَهُ يُصَلُّونَ عَلَى النَّبِيِّ ۚ يَا > أَيُّهَا الَّذِينَ آمَنُوا صَلُّوا عَلَيْهِ وَسَلِّمُوا > تَسْلِيمًا

> > Allah and His Angels send blessings on the Prophet: O ye that believe! > Send ye blessings on him and salute him with all respect. **Surah Ahzaab verse 56** I have to think about this from a long time why Allah has to send his blessing toward Muhammad (saw). I mean Allah have All the power of the world and he accepts all blessing of mankind and every other living thing, then why He have to send his blessing?
I am sorry if I did not get the proper translation cause I don't know how to speak Arabic.

The society of Muslims needs to be guided by caliph after prophet Mohammad (PBUH). Hence, after the death of holy prophet (PBUH), a caliph was assigned to guide and rule the Muslims. According to my findings in noble Qur'an, God has assigned the caliph. For example, Moses the prophet (PBUH) didn't ask people to form a Shura for choosing a successor when he left for Miqat. > Moses said: "O’ Allah) assign me a vizier from my family, (that is) my > brother Aaron (Haroon) ...,”(Allah) said: "We granted your requests, > O’ Moses.”(20:29-36) . Or in another verse, Allah the exalted, directly mentions the word "Caliph": > يَا دَاوُودُ **إِنَّا جَعَلْنَاكَ خَلِيفَةً** فِي الْأَرْ‌ضِ فَاحْكُم > بَيْنَ النَّاسِ بِالْحَقِّ وَلَا تَتَّبِعِ الْهَوَىٰ فَيُضِلَّكَ عَن > سَبِيلِ اللَّـهِ ۚ إِنَّ الَّذِينَ يَضِلُّونَ عَن سَبِيلِ اللَّـهِ > لَهُمْ عَذَابٌ شَدِيدٌ بِمَا نَسُوا يَوْمَ الْحِسَابِ > > [We said], "O David, indeed **We have made you a successor** upon the > earth, so judge between the people in truth and do not follow [your > own] desire, as it will lead you astray from the way of Allah." > Indeed, those who go astray from the way of Allah will have a severe > punishment for having forgotten the Day of Account.(38:26) But I didn't find other clues mentioning the authority of the prophet or people. Please let me know if others except God has such an authority. Support your answer using Qur'an and Hadith.

Whenever I pray to Allah swt to make things good and make a particular thing easy for me and solve the issue in a better way, then only after few days something bad happens about that issue. Else it gets more worst or it becomes impossible for me or for my family to tackle it.

I were commenting against someone who was talking about the marriage of the prophet pbuh and Aisha peace be upon her too. The person I was commenting against said something like why would God let the perfect model for Earth marry a child when we know in today’s society that it could cause numerous health problems if a man and a young woman were to engage in sexual relationships and that it would leave people committing illegal acts in today’s society. God would’ve known that marrying people significantly younger or older can be bad so why would god set out such a bad example for the humans even though the prophet was supposed to be the perfect example. Please include Hadith and Quranic verses if possible.

Is it regarded as immoral to marry a young girl in Islam given that prophet Muhammad married Aisha when she was 6-7 and had her consummated when she was around 10? Generally, is everything Muhammad did considered as desirable, expected and/or good behavior for Muslims nowadays?

Why Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala did not call our prophet (Sallallahu Alaihi wa Sallam) like "Ya Muhammad!..." in the Holy book Quranul Karim? Is it okay to address with this if anything Allah Subhanahu wa Ta'ala told addressing our prophet? Example: وَأْمُرْ أَهْلَكَ بِالصَّلَاةِ وَاصْطَبِرْ عَلَيْهَا لَا نَسْأَلُكَ رِزْقًا نَّحْنُ نَرْزُقُكَ وَالْعَاقِبَةُ لِلتَّقْوَى Is it okay to translate like: "And (**Hey Muhammad Sallallhu Alaihi wa Sallam!**) enjoin prayer upon your family [and people] and be steadfast therein. We ask you not for provision; We provide for you, and the [best] outcome is for [those of] righteousness."(20:132) The Imam of our local mosque said, "Allah subhanahu wa ta'la never called Rasulullah Sallallahu Alaihi wa Sallam with his name, because, calling by one's name is not that respectful. So, Allah subhanahu wa ta'ala avoided it. But used in case of other prophet so that people could understand the respect of our prophet (pbuh). So, translating like this is not permissible."

My daughter accidentally without our knowledge drank her aunt's breast milk which she collected in a feeder. So is her aunt now my daughter's foster mother? She drank only two to three drops.

I’m just wondering about this ruling on asking questions about Islam. Some say it’s discouraged and some say it’s haram but my question is would it be considered kufr if you ask too many questions about Islam. So in my case I asked “it doesn’t make sense, why does Prophet Muhammad love us more than our mother loves us if he didn’t meet us in the first place?” Edit: is my question in quotations considered doubt

Could you please provide an explanation for this with accuracy

According to Sunnis, mut'ah (temporary marriage) was allowed before but later the Prophet salallahu alayhi wassalam abolished it. It is based on the following hadiths (traditions): > In the Two Sahihs, it is recorded that the Leader of the Faithful `Ali > bin Abi Talib said, "The Messenger of Allah prohibited Mut'ah marriage > and eating the meat of domesticated donkeys on the day of Khaybar > (battle).'' In addition, in his Sahih, Muslim recorded that Ar-Rabi' bin Sabrah bin Ma'bad Al-Juhani said that his father said that he accompanied the Messenger of Allah during the conquest of Makkah, and that the Prophet said, > O people! I allowed you the Mut'ah marriage with women before. Now, > Allah has prohibited it until the Day of Resurrection. Therefore, > anyone who has any women in Mut`ah, let him let them go, and do not > take anything from what you have given them. What is the evidence that the Shia used to allow it? Are there any conditions to perform Mut'ah ? What happens to the woman and her children after the Mut'ah marriage ends?

I have heard from several pious and sincere Muslims I met in my travels who claimed that the Islamic Prophet Muhammad has been prophesied in the Bible. But, unfortunately they could not show me any clear evidence in the Bible. Being a follower of Jesus Christ I have read the Bible several times. However, I have never found once in the Bible about the coming of a prophet called Muhammad. Sometimes I wonder if it is a mere claim or a claim with evidence.

Asalamualikum, Ive had this question for sometime now, but Im too afraid to ask someone in person. Prop Muhammed is deemed as the best prophet of all time, and that there were times when rock spoke about him, trees moved for him.Where as it is said that Prop Suleman had great control over all the realms , the Jins, the Animals, The Wind, the Sea etc. Didnt prophet Muhammed have the same power over all the realms, if yes then why did you not use them in the wars he fought. Thanks in Advance.

**Sahih Muslim #2015** Maimuna reported that one morning Allah’s Messenger was silent with grief. Maimuna said: Allah’s Messenger, I find a change in your mood today. Allah’s Messenger said: Gabriel had promised me that he would meet me tonight, but he did not meet me. By Allah, he never broke his promises, and Allah’s Messenger spent the day in this sad mood. Then it occurred to him that there had been a puppy under their cot. He commanded and it was turned out. He then took some water in his hand and sprinkled it at that place. When it was evening Gabriel met him and he said to him: You promised me that you would meet me the previous night. He said: Yes, but we do not enter a house in which there is a dog or a picture. Then on that very morning he commanded the k!lling of the dogs until he announced that the dog kept for the orchards should also be k!lled, but he spared the dog meant for the protection of extensive fields or big gardens. ****Sunan Abi Dawud #2845** (Sahih - Al Albaani)** Narrated Abdullah ibn Mughaffal: The Prophet (ﷺ) said: Were dogs not a species of creature I should command that they all be k!lled; but k!ll every pure black one. **Sahih al-Bukhari #3323** Narrated Abdullah bin `Umar: Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) ordered that the dogs should be k!lled. I have no idea how this is justifiable. From whatever justifications I've seen, they say its 1) The "dogs" are not dogs but hyenas, wolf, etc, if thats really the case then the scholars wouldn't cite these hadiths to say why we shouldn't pet dogs, or in the worst case to prove that its Sunnah to k!ll black dogs (even if they are not evil). 2) The dogs were disease causing and violent hence the Prophet allowed the k!llings - however they donot cite any authentic references for this, its just an assumption. So from whatever material available, im getting the picture from the first hadith that the he ordered the k!llings of dogs just because a puppy under his bed prevented Angel Gabriels from entering his house. If there is any better explaination to these hadiths please mention it below.

Salam! I have come across a sort of a troubling narration about Prophet PBUH's marriage with Sawda R.A: https://sunnah.com/tirmidhi:3040 At first I was like maybe it was just Sawda R.A being afraid of divorce and Prophet PBUH actually did not actually initiate it but then I came across an article online which quoted a mursal report from some Ibn Sa'd book that the Prophet PBUH actually initiated the divorce and Sawda R.A in order to save her marriage gave her night to Aisha R.A. It has given me some more doubts than when I came across the narration in tirmidhi... This isn't sitting well with me... I'm sure I'm missing some context here. The Prophet PBUH cannot just simply decide to divorce his older wife one day?? Besides arent there other traditions for the revelation of that verse (4:128) too? Can you please take a look and see what the authentic narrative says about this whole situation? JzkAllah Khair!

There is one trashy Islamophobe who cites the following Hadith:- Anas reported that a person was charged with fornication with the slavegirl of Allah's Messenger (ﷺ). Thereupon Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) said to 'Ali: **Go and strike his neck.** 'Ali came to him and he found him in a well making his body cool. 'Ali said to him: Come out, and as he took hold of his hand and brought him out, he found that his sexual organ had been cut. Hadrat 'Ali refrained from striking his neck. He came to Allah's Apostle (ﷺ) and said: Allah's Messenger, he has not even the sexual organ with him. (Sahih Muslim 2771) The enemy of Islam has raised many objections against Prophet Muhammad (Sallallahu'alayhiwassalam). Some objections are as under:- 1) Nauzubillah! He is claiming that Prophet Muhammad (Sallallahu'alayhiwassalam) became "jealous" and he ordered the killing of that man. 2) It was a mere accusation that was proven false but still Prophet Muhammad (Sallallahu'alayhiwassalam) ordered Ali (May Allah Grant Peace To Ali) to kill that man without even investigating the incident. 3) That atheist has objected that according to Islam, four witnessess should be present in order to testify that adultery or fornication has taken place, yet we see that Prophet Muhammad (Sallallahu'alayhiwassalam) ordered the killing of that man without any witness ever testifying that fornication or adultery ever took place. According to that Atheist, why did not Prophet Muhammad (Sallallahu'alayhiwassalam) asked for four witness if he himself followed the Quran? 4) He is also claiming that this allegation against that man was raised by Prophet Muhammad (Salllallahu'alayhiwassalam) himslef! Dear Brothers in Islam, please answer my question, as I am asking this question to defend the honor of Prophet Muhammad (Sallallahu'alayhiwassalam). May Allah protect us all from such Fitna. Ameen.

After a little research, I have seen a lot of Muslim critic targeting this hadith as a reference to Islam being racist. The hadith is as follows: > Jabir (Allah be pleased with him) reported: There came a slave and pledg- ed allegiance to Allah's Apostle ﷺ on migration; he (the Holy Prophet) did not know that he was a slave. Then there came his master and demanded him back, whereupon Allah's Apostle ﷺ said: Sell him to me. And he bought him for two black slaves, and he did not afterwards take allegiance from anyone until he had asked him whether he was a slave (or a free man) (Sahih Muslim ) An argument of such a critic is "Muhammad not only trades in slaves, but he deems the life of one slave pledging himself to Islam as MORE worthy than two African non-converts." What would be a general response to such an argument? As a matter of fact, an explanation of this hadith would be appreciated. -------------------------------- As an attempt to answering my own question, I was thinking of this: So, by default our prophet has already made it clear in the last sermon that a white isn't superior to a black nor is a non-Arab superior to an Arab or vice versa. So when our prophet decided to sell 2 black individuals for an individual who has pledged allegiance to the prophet, it wasn't because of race or that the black slaves were expendable but maybe for a certain reason where assuming the 2 black slaves were more valued to the slave master, than anything such as money or animal. It's also possible that the slave who pledged allegiance to our prophet could have been black. Hence bought him for 2 black non-muslims. At this point, I am only rationalizing on certain possibilities but not really getting anywhere. I just hope someone can have a better explanation than myself with proper evidence.

My question is very simple in my last question someone replied to me that the parents of Prophet Muhammad were non muslim . How could that be correct ! In fact their father's name was Abdullah . My mother told me that only his uncle ( Abu talib is jahanami( In hell) ) .And tell me one more thing I don't think that Prophet Muhammad created the Salah because there were some famous Prophets like Moosa -al hai salaam , ( Moses ) . Haven't they offered Salah ?

The Quran suggests Muhammad is written about in what we have of the Torah and the Injeel in Quran 7:157 and other verses and hadiths. >Quran 7:157 "Those who follow the Messenger, the unlettered prophet, whom they find written in what they have of the Torah and the Gospel..." One of the prooftexts often provided is Deuteronomy 18:15-20. >Deuteronomy 18:15-20 [Moses speaking to the Israelites]15 The Lord your God will **raise up for you a prophet like me from among your midst, from your brothers.** You must listen to him. 16 For this is what you asked of the Lord your God at Horeb on the day of the assembly when you said, “Let us not hear the voice of the Lord our God nor see this great fire anymore, or we will die.” > >17 The Lord said to me [Moses]: “What they say is good. 18 **I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their brothers,** and I will put my words in his mouth. He will tell them everything I command him. 19 I myself will call to account anyone who does not listen to my words that the prophet speaks in my name. 20 But a prophet who presumes to speak in my name anything I have not commanded, or a prophet who speaks in the name of other gods, is to be put to death.” **What is the Islamic basis for understanding that a prophet "among your midst, among your brothers" could include the Ishmaelites as a possibility that would fulfill these verses?** An answer much more thorough than "because it doesn't exclude them explicitly" would be appreciated, as this is counter-intuitive. Additionally, the following data should be taken into consideration: In the same speech of Moses speaking to the Israelites, "brothers" seems to be more definitely restricted to Israelites (Deuteronomy 18:1-2), as the "brothers" have an inheritance, yet the Ishmaelites have no mention of an "inheritance" in Scripture. Again, in Deuteronomy 17:14-15, "brothers" are only part of those entering the Promised Land, the "land that God is giving you," which the Ishmaelites had no place in. The Ishmaelites were geographically quite separated from the Israelite location, so "among your midst" additionally appears to, on the surface, restrict this prophet to be an Israelite. Finally, "brothers" as a familial term seems to also restrict the prophet to be an Israelite. The Israelites and Ishmaelites, at this point, had already been separated in geography and genealogy for over 400 years; while it may seem reasonable to apply the phrase to relatively close genealogical members (though this distance isn't applied in chapters 17-18 mentioned previously), it seems highly unusual to use this term for those separated by such a great blood-relationship distance, many generations ago. So, really, to answer the main question as well as to address the all the data necessary, sub-questions would have to be answered (or counter-examples given): - **What good reason do Muslims propose is there to change the scope of the phrase "brothers" to include the Ishmaelites when it is previously restricted to Israelites in 17:14-15 and 18:1-2?** - **What good reason do Muslims propose is there for "among your midst" to apply to a people group that seems to be not "among your midst"?** (e.g. are there counter-examples in the Tanakh where "among your midst" also applies to two things geographically separated by many miles?) **I would really appreciate direction toward any Muslim scholarly literature that exists on the subject as well as any Muslim scholars familiar with Biblical Hebrew.** A discussion of the use of the term "brothers" and "among your midst" specifically in the Tanakh seems warranted. I recall "brothers" is used at some point in Scripture, though not in the same context, of Esau's descendants, which would still be Isaac's descendant. I welcome answers that dispute with any of the claims throughout this question. Let's leave the proposed corruption of the Bible out of the scope of this question.