Not to cause argument, i only want to clear any misunderstandings that i may have. According to Sunnis, Fadak was inheritance, in contrast to endowment. But Al Suyuti seems to take the latter view in his tafsir. Al Suyuti comments on surah 17 verse 26: “Abu Saeed al Khudri and Abdullah Ibn Abbas narrate that when the verse relating to giving rights to kindred was revealed, the Prophet called Fatima Zahra (as) and gifted the land of Fadak to her”. - [Tafseer Dur al-Manthur, Vol. 4, page 177](https://shiapen.com/wp-content/uploads/BlogMedia/tafseer_dur_almanthur_v4_p177-1642247339.jpg)

**Muhammad Peace SHALL BE UPON HIM** Islam teaches that Muhammad ﷺ is the Seal of the Prophets (Khatam an‑Nabiyyīn), yet Muslims also believe that Jesus (ʿĪsā, peace be upon him) will return near the end of times. The Qur’an emphasizes the finality of Muhammad ﷺ’s message: > “Muhammad is not the father of any of your men, but he is the Messenger of Allah and the Seal of the Prophets…” (Qur’an 33:40) The Qur’an also contains verses that classical scholars interpret as referring to Jesus’ eschatological role, such as: “And indeed, he is a sign for [the coming of] the Hour…” (Qur’an 43:61), understood by many scholars as indicating that Jesus’ return will be a sign of the approaching Day of Judgment. “And (as for) their saying, ‘We killed the Messiah…’… Rather, Allah raised him up to Himself…” (Qur’an 4:157–158), which is taken as establishing that Jesus was raised and will return. “…Allah said, ‘O Jesus, I will take you and raise you to Myself… Then to Me is your return…’” (Qur’an 3:55), which many commentators connect with Jesus’ future descent and eventual death after his mission is completed. My specific question is: How do mainstream Islamic scholars explain that Jesus’ return does not violate the finality of prophethood with Muhammad ﷺ, and how is Jesus’ return understood in relation to Muhammad’s completed message according to the Qur’an and traditional exegesis? I am looking for a doctrinal explanation that shows how the concept of Jesus’ return fits within orthodox Islamic theology without contradicting the finality of Muhammad ﷺ’s prophethood.

I heard Aisha (r.a) was engaged before she married Prophet Muhammad (s.a.w). Can you provide details about this? Are they authentic?

What is the correct way to spell the Prophet's name? Muhammad, Mohammad, Muhammed, Mohammed, Mohamed, or Mohumed? Wikipedia spells it Muhammad (so does this site's tag: [tag:prophet-muhammad]), though I'm running into people with variations on the spelling quite often.

We were told that the Prophet peace be upon him lived an extremely humble and poor life. He hardly have food at home for the next day. This is what we were told. Now that I have researched, I find that the Prophet could not have been that poor because 1. Quran allowed the Prophet to keep 1/5 of the war booty 2. He had gifted the mount of Fadak to Fatima, which was captured in a battle. 3. He had many wives himself, which would be hardly possible, if he was such a poor man. Each wife lived in a seperate home (AFAIK). Apparently he gave a good amount of Mehr to his wives according to this answer Now I do understand that there were times when the Prophet did not have enough resources, that was in the early and middle time of Islam. But in the last 3 years of his life or so he must have been well off because he was the ruler, he kept the largest part of war booty and People used to send gifts to him which he would accept. My question, In what forms did the Prophet pay Zakat. Did he pay it little over the year or at once at the end of year? If he paid it at one time, does it give the estimate of his wealth? My related question is, why dont we follow the Prophet in Zakat related issue while follow him in every other possible way? Could this be because he never paid Zakat? While searching online, I cam across this similar question . May be one can highlight the authenticity of that answer as well.

There is a hadith about Umm Hani approaching the Prophet (ﷺ), and she asked him for a good deed that she could do because she had become old and weak. The Prophet (ﷺ) said that if she said Subhanallah 100x, it would be equivalent to freeing 100 slaves from the children of Ismail, and if she said Alhamdullilah 100x, it would be equivalent to sending 100 horses to battle in the way of Allah for jihad, and if she said Allahuakbar 100x, it would be as if you dressed 100 camels to get sacraficed in Hajj. I can't find much information about the validity of this hadith online, so does anybody know if it is authentic or not?

I heard few sahaba's they got the ticket to heaven when they are in the earth: like **Umar R.A** and **Abubakar** 1. How many else got there?

Is sunnah prayer from Allah or from muhammad (saw), because it is called sunnah and sunnah is related to muhammad ( saw).

I watched a video (I can't remember where I watched it) that says exchanging two different things of different prices is riba (interest) as per Islam, and it was told by the Prophet (Peace be upon him). I'll give some examples. 1. I give two $500 worth of phones to my friend and gain a laptop that is worth $1000. 2. I give two $500 worth of phones to my friend and gain a laptop that is worth $1500. 3. I create a mobile app worth $1000 and get a $1000 worth of laptop. 4. I create a mobile app worth $1200 and get a $1000 worth of laptop. How and when will these scenarios come under riba (interest) or not?

>

إِنَّ اللَّهَ وَمَلَائِكَتَهُ يُصَلُّونَ عَلَى النَّبِيِّ ۚ يَا > أَيُّهَا الَّذِينَ آمَنُوا صَلُّوا عَلَيْهِ وَسَلِّمُوا > تَسْلِيمًا

> > Allah and His Angels send blessings on the Prophet: O ye that believe! > Send ye blessings on him and salute him with all respect. **Surah Ahzaab verse 56** I have to think about this from a long time why Allah has to send his blessing toward Muhammad (saw). I mean Allah have All the power of the world and he accepts all blessing of mankind and every other living thing, then why He have to send his blessing?
I am sorry if I did not get the proper translation cause I don't know how to speak Arabic.

The society of Muslims needs to be guided by caliph after prophet Mohammad (PBUH). Hence, after the death of holy prophet (PBUH), a caliph was assigned to guide and rule the Muslims. According to my findings in noble Qur'an, God has assigned the caliph. For example, Moses the prophet (PBUH) didn't ask people to form a Shura for choosing a successor when he left for Miqat. > Moses said: "O’ Allah) assign me a vizier from my family, (that is) my > brother Aaron (Haroon) ...,”(Allah) said: "We granted your requests, > O’ Moses.”(20:29-36) . Or in another verse, Allah the exalted, directly mentions the word "Caliph": > يَا دَاوُودُ **إِنَّا جَعَلْنَاكَ خَلِيفَةً** فِي الْأَرْ‌ضِ فَاحْكُم > بَيْنَ النَّاسِ بِالْحَقِّ وَلَا تَتَّبِعِ الْهَوَىٰ فَيُضِلَّكَ عَن > سَبِيلِ اللَّـهِ ۚ إِنَّ الَّذِينَ يَضِلُّونَ عَن سَبِيلِ اللَّـهِ > لَهُمْ عَذَابٌ شَدِيدٌ بِمَا نَسُوا يَوْمَ الْحِسَابِ > > [We said], "O David, indeed **We have made you a successor** upon the > earth, so judge between the people in truth and do not follow [your > own] desire, as it will lead you astray from the way of Allah." > Indeed, those who go astray from the way of Allah will have a severe > punishment for having forgotten the Day of Account.(38:26) But I didn't find other clues mentioning the authority of the prophet or people. Please let me know if others except God has such an authority. Support your answer using Qur'an and Hadith.

Whenever I pray to Allah swt to make things good and make a particular thing easy for me and solve the issue in a better way, then only after few days something bad happens about that issue. Else it gets more worst or it becomes impossible for me or for my family to tackle it.

I were commenting against someone who was talking about the marriage of the prophet pbuh and Aisha peace be upon her too. The person I was commenting against said something like why would God let the perfect model for Earth marry a child when we know in today’s society that it could cause numerous health problems if a man and a young woman were to engage in sexual relationships and that it would leave people committing illegal acts in today’s society. God would’ve known that marrying people significantly younger or older can be bad so why would god set out such a bad example for the humans even though the prophet was supposed to be the perfect example. Please include Hadith and Quranic verses if possible.

Is it regarded as immoral to marry a young girl in Islam given that prophet Muhammad married Aisha when she was 6-7 and had her consummated when she was around 10? Generally, is everything Muhammad did considered as desirable, expected and/or good behavior for Muslims nowadays?

Why Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala did not call our prophet (Sallallahu Alaihi wa Sallam) like "Ya Muhammad!..." in the Holy book Quranul Karim? Is it okay to address with this if anything Allah Subhanahu wa Ta'ala told addressing our prophet? Example: وَأْمُرْ أَهْلَكَ بِالصَّلَاةِ وَاصْطَبِرْ عَلَيْهَا لَا نَسْأَلُكَ رِزْقًا نَّحْنُ نَرْزُقُكَ وَالْعَاقِبَةُ لِلتَّقْوَى Is it okay to translate like: "And (**Hey Muhammad Sallallhu Alaihi wa Sallam!**) enjoin prayer upon your family [and people] and be steadfast therein. We ask you not for provision; We provide for you, and the [best] outcome is for [those of] righteousness."(20:132) The Imam of our local mosque said, "Allah subhanahu wa ta'la never called Rasulullah Sallallahu Alaihi wa Sallam with his name, because, calling by one's name is not that respectful. So, Allah subhanahu wa ta'ala avoided it. But used in case of other prophet so that people could understand the respect of our prophet (pbuh). So, translating like this is not permissible."

My daughter accidentally without our knowledge drank her aunt's breast milk which she collected in a feeder. So is her aunt now my daughter's foster mother? She drank only two to three drops.

I’m just wondering about this ruling on asking questions about Islam. Some say it’s discouraged and some say it’s haram but my question is would it be considered kufr if you ask too many questions about Islam. So in my case I asked “it doesn’t make sense, why does Prophet Muhammad love us more than our mother loves us if he didn’t meet us in the first place?” Edit: is my question in quotations considered doubt

Could you please provide an explanation for this with accuracy

According to Sunnis, mut'ah (temporary marriage) was allowed before but later the Prophet salallahu alayhi wassalam abolished it. It is based on the following hadiths (traditions): > In the Two Sahihs, it is recorded that the Leader of the Faithful `Ali > bin Abi Talib said, "The Messenger of Allah prohibited Mut'ah marriage > and eating the meat of domesticated donkeys on the day of Khaybar > (battle).'' In addition, in his Sahih, Muslim recorded that Ar-Rabi' bin Sabrah bin Ma'bad Al-Juhani said that his father said that he accompanied the Messenger of Allah during the conquest of Makkah, and that the Prophet said, > O people! I allowed you the Mut'ah marriage with women before. Now, > Allah has prohibited it until the Day of Resurrection. Therefore, > anyone who has any women in Mut`ah, let him let them go, and do not > take anything from what you have given them. What is the evidence that the Shia used to allow it? Are there any conditions to perform Mut'ah ? What happens to the woman and her children after the Mut'ah marriage ends?

I have heard from several pious and sincere Muslims I met in my travels who claimed that the Islamic Prophet Muhammad has been prophesied in the Bible. But, unfortunately they could not show me any clear evidence in the Bible. Being a follower of Jesus Christ I have read the Bible several times. However, I have never found once in the Bible about the coming of a prophet called Muhammad. Sometimes I wonder if it is a mere claim or a claim with evidence.