In a municipality where the non-muslim government has broken down: are muslims legally obligated to prosecute murders of non-muslims?

We have sahih hadiths to learn authentic info about the life of the prophet, do we have something equivalent in authority and reliability for those four caliphs ?

Which Ahadith and references from the scholars could be provided to answer this question? - I will post an answer to this question - Square brackets [ ] are additions or/and individual changes (for clarity) of the author's thread ----------- Continuation of "the authentic, standard supplications (A'dyiah) and rememberances (Adhkar) after the Prayer ." ----------- >The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) said: "[...] *And He commands you to remember Allah. For indeed, the parable of that is a man whose enemy quickly tracks him until he reaches an impermeable fortress in which he protects himself from them. This is how the worshiper is; he does not protect himself from Ash-Shaytan except by the remembrance of Allah.*" > >At-Tirmidhi (2863 ) Abu I'sa graded Hasan Sahih Gharib >Allah says in Surah Ar-Ra'd, Ayah 28 : "***Those who have believed and whose hearts are assured by the remembrance of Allah. Unquestionably, by the remembrance of Allah hearts are assured***" ---- Every Dhikr or Du'a should be uttered with the full Yaqin (certainty) and with full understanding of what is said (translation) so that you make use of them.

Is stealing someone's data by, for example, hacking their phone, against sharia? What about things like advanced wire-tapping, timing attacks, and other forms of data exfiltration?

So I was reading this article , and I read these 2 ahadith in it. and it goes like this, > Allah created some people for hell and some people for paradise. My initial understanding of this hadith was that, as people live out their lives. The people who do good will goto heaven and people who do bad will goto hell, both groups of people are given free will. So it is very fair and I dont have any issue with it. but then this next hadith confuses me, > Each one of you will find it easy to do what he was created for. This above hadith makes it sound very unfair to me, for example lets say I was created for hell that means God created a **tendency** in me to commit sins and made it harder for me to do good deeds. While the people God chose for heaven, he made a **tendency** in them to do good deeds and made it hard for them to commit sins. So this kind of negates the whole **free will** thing. It basically means that God has chosen favourites and the system is **rigged** as the chances of person created for Hell commiting sins **by design** is higher than the chances for person created for Heaven to commit sins. Also can be intrepreted as not all humans were created equal, as it is unfair towards the person created for Hell, as God literally made it easier for him to commit sins at no fault of his. I am a Muslim and I believe in Allah and his Prophet (PBUH) and this hadith could be weak or I am misinterpreting it, so please if anybody knows, can you please clarify for me. Thank you

or is there something else that is opposite or similar to it... From all the teachings i have received the rule I'd say is Islamic is do what's the best. Basically people change so labelling someone as sinner may make us overlook his/her good parts and overlook their change if it occurs. Please provide hadiths/Quran if possible

Ibliss he was very truthful to God before Adam. My question does Ibliss still pray to Allah or has he stopped?

Assalamu alaikum, so at the beginning of 2024 i made a promise that if i do a sin (which i regularly did) again in 2024 (only in that year) i would fast for 5 days straight and if i skip one day i would have to start the fasting again. I made this promise because how addictive the sin was but i couldn't hold myself from committing the sin multiple times in 2024 and now i have to fast too many days which is actually too hard or even impossible for me to do. It has been almost a year and yet I'm regretting that promise. In high school i learned about making promises with Allah (i think it is like shard in arabic) and the only way to break is to fast 3 days or free certain number of slaves or feed certain number of poor people. So can i just break the promise by just fasting only 3 days ? Or are there any other ways to break the promise ?

Paulogia is an ex Christian Atheist who debates and debunks Christian Apologetics? Prophecies in bible is very important argument for Christians to show truth of Bible and its consistency. While to counter argue ,with some neutrality this is criteria to judge claims of prophecy without shifting goals. 1. Made clearly and demonstrably prior to the events predicted. 2. Intended to be a prediction. 3. A non-mundane claim. 4. Answerable only by a single, clear, verifiable occurrence. 5. Not open to interpretation. 6. Not something people are actively attempting to fulfill. So, do any hadiths of historical prophecies exist that satisfy this criteria or not ?

I took my SAT recently and scored well. When my friends asked for my score, I told them about it and they asked for books and plans of action for their SAT. Now although they are my friends, they're also competition for college seats, and I'd like not to create more competition for myself. Is it allowed to withhold the resources I used and my advice in this scenario?

Is everyone who is not either Jewish or Christian (dhimmis) or Muslim kafirs? I assumed that was the case, but Wikipedia says > The term refers to a person who rejects or disbelieves in the god of > Islam or who hides, denies, or pays no attention to the Islamic > version of truth. and the section Types of disbelief seems to be describing scenarios where Islam is offered to someone, and they reject it. Would someone who has had never had Islam promoted to them by another person still be a kafir? For example, would someone living in North Korea be a kafir, or a Japanese person who believes in Buddhism and Shinto be regarded as a kafir?

Generally the plastic bottles have an expiry date, then after that it becomes harmful to drink from that bottle, so what should I do with the Zam Zam water stored in plastic bottles in my house from the past 10 Years

Assalamu aleykum, when breaking our fast we say this duaa : The thirst is gone, and the veins are moistened and the reward is certain InshaAllah. My question is, how do we interpret this since we say it right after we break the fast so our veins don't moisten immediately for instance. So is it more of a description of the process? Any answer would help. Jazakum Allahu khairan.

According to the hadith Jami` at-Tirmidhi Book 24 Hadith 1731 my understanding is that a woman has to wear a long garment which is below the ankle by at least a handspan or forearm. (That's what i understand by 'slacken') > Narrated Ibn 'Umar: That the Messenger of Allah (Peace be upon him) said: "Whoever arrogantly drags his garment, Allah will not look at him on the Day of Judgement." So Umm Salamah said: "What should the women do with their hems?" He said: "Slacken them a handspan." So she said: "Then their feet will be uncovered." He said: "Then slacken them a forearm's length and do not add to that." While according to the fatwa > If it is short and comes a handspan above the ankles, that is not permissible even if she covers her calves and feet with pants or socks, because that is imitating men who are enjoined to make their garments short, above the ankles. Here they seem to have set handspan in the other direction i.e. it is allowed according to the fatwa to be above the ankle as long as it is not risen by more than handspan from the ankle. **Question:Are Ankles to be covered for women? if not, till what extent the lower garment can be(above the ankles)?**

Is it haram for men and women to show their ankles? What are the current rules? It could be considered something reprehensible to others.

Asalamualikum My dad says that he heard a maulana say that in the 10 days of dhul hijjah the ruling of cutting the nails and hair is only for the person performing hajj and in the state of ihram and not applied to the person not performing hajj but intending to sacrifice an animal. So I want to know whether this is right or not. And also I have read that it is only for the person paying for the sacrifice or slaughtering himself to not cut hair or nails but the family members on whose behalf the sacrifice is being offered are permissible to cut hair and nails. So is that true? Eg if my dad is paying for the udhhiyah on our behalf but we do intend for the sacrifice so is it permissible or not permissible for us to cut the hair or nails?

Has it ever reckoned upon the Ahle Sunnah as to realistically how many people can be spiritually good or bad (not just believing or disbelieving). Since Allah has created the world to test, was there a chance that all humans, according to their free will, might have done so bad that Allah would have put all of them in Hell, aside from the Prophets and their companions. I'm mainly talking about the last Ummah because that is what is emperical directly. So is it mentioned that Allah would have created a balance by creating people with forced good intentions or rather all humans could have ended up as sinners?

I work in Mumbai. And my company has given diwali hampers to all the employees regardless of their religion as it is company policy. It is halal for to consume food and products I received it the hamper?

I was listing to something and they said Christ in the song and I was listening to the lyrics so I said it too but my intention wasn’t to call for help I was just singing the lyrics is it haram

Christian Science is a sect encouraging medical neglect, and lobbying for laws making faith-healing exceptions to laws against medical neglect. I am interested, is there something similar in Islam?