How can Qiraat arise if the majority of the Quran was written in the Quraishi Dialect? I previously asked the same question but no reasonable answer. I might have misunderstood the meaning of the Hadeeth: **"If you disagree with Zaid bin Thabit at any point, write in the dialect of Quryaish. Verily, the Quran was revealed in their tongue."** Please, explain it to me, I really dont understand? Also, do we know that Uthman purposely allowed these differences?

I came accross Sana'a publication by Sadeghi (Sana'a and The Origins of Qur'an), but he only conclude ***some example*** of textual variation with standard qur'an. > Table 1 gives a **few examples**, in English translation, in which C-1 > differs from the standard text.38 The C-1 type shares a number of > variants He also, pointed many reading variants from Ibn Mas'ud and Ubay ibn Ka'ab. Which is not what I, or every layman, can understand. *(Is it affect the meaning?)* Have also searched this forum and found this interesting insight, https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/40078/is-it-likely-that-the-sanaa-manuscript-was-an-accepted-reading-of-the-quran Adding up some more point in textual variant. But still, it's not complete list. I was wondering if any publication has been made, which include list of **all** difference found between Sana'a and the current Qur'an; in terms of overall meaning in english translation? Because I didn't find one.

Assalamualaikum, I am fully aware that all the ten major qiraats are authentic and have no contradictions in them. I am having trouble on ayat in particular which is Surah hud ayat 81 in hafs and Al-bazzi. I have seen one response on this website but I am still confused on how it means the same thing. In hafs the ayat reads as if the angles command prophet Lut to take everyone in his family except his wife and to not look back. On the other hand in Al-bazzi from my understanding it reads like the angles are commanding him to take everyone including his wife and that she’ll be the only one to look back. I don’t understand how the angels could have said both and meant the same thing. Jazakallah Khair for any help you can give.

Salam, I’ve recently been looking at the differences between hafs and warsh variants and can understand the difference between most of them. However, I looked at a website recently which said that in Quran 66:12, in the hafs version it says “his books” while in the warsh version it says “his book.” Does this not change the meaning in the verse? Also, there are differences regarding singular and plural in other places as well, so I was wondering if that changes the meaning? Jazakallah Khair

Assalam o alaikum! I was watching a video recently where someone pointed out that the hafs and warsh recitations of surah 98 verse 6 have different meaning. In hafs the word for worst of creatures is شَرُّ الْبَرِيَّةِ while in warsh it says شر البريئة the latter translates into worst of innocent. I've checked the translation for بريئة and it translates into innocent. These are neither same nor complimentary. How do you reconcile these two?

I've come across the claim that the first mushafs (suhuf?) did not include vowel marks and sometimes did not even consistently use other diacritical marks to distinguish consonants. An example of a page of a very early mushaf that lacks vowel marks is the [Sana'a manuscript](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sana 'a_manuscript). This leads to the questions: - When were consistent vowel marks and other diacritical marks added, according to Islamic lore? (Asking for historical evidence would be a better fit on [History](https://history.stackexchange.com/) , but if any is available, it will be interesting here as well.) - If we leave out all vowel marks from the current canonical text, are there passages that become ambiguous? As an example, I've heard the claim that at the beginning of surah [Rum](https://quran.com/30/) , one of the verses could then be read as either "the Romans will defeat" or "the Romans will be defeated". - Does early Islamic scholarship discuss these issues?

Salam, in Kitab al-Masahif of Ibn Abi Dawood the author provids some variant quotes of the Mushaf of ibn Mas'ud. I also heard that we have some (other) quotes in tafsir books. Can we make the whole Mushaf of ibn Mas'ud today or are there some missing parts and that's why everyone claims it's lost? or maybe we have conflicting hadeeth about the same verse. I dont understand. Thanks you

As far as I know there are more than one reading for Quran. Some say they are 7 and others say they are 14. What does that mean? Are there more than one Quran? Which reading is the correct one and why? What is the role of Uthman (may Allah be pleased with him) exactly concerning these readings?

Here is the link to the various qiraats of the Quran Let me post the screenshots of sura 37:12 from 2 different qiraats and also their translation: **Hafs qiraat:** **Translation of the hafs:*** But **YOU** wonder, while they mock* --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- **Khalaf from Hamza:** **Translation:*** But **I** wonder, while they mock* You can also refer to the video

Selam aleikum, I know, that one of the criteria’s of an accepted Qiraat is being mutawatir. (Ibn Al-Jazaris conditions) What exactly is meant with it and how many people are needed to make it mutawatir (in each generation)? So let’s say, there is a specific harf or some Ahruf in the recitation of the Prophet (saw), so he recited it and the companions heard it and then they learned it. Does this condition mean, that every single harf were heard by many companions (What number of companions is enough?) and then a Qiraat were made out of them and were recited by companions. Or Does this „mutawatir“ condition is counted after the forming of a Qiraat? Can someone clarify this. May Allah bless you.

Of everything I've read, the Hafs-an-Asim reading of the Qur'an is used by the vast majority of Muslims (it's definitely the only I've ever seen or heard used in my area). I've even seen articles claiming that this is the case for up to 95% of the Muslim world, with the Warsh-an-Nafi reading holding second place with a whopping 3%. However, it is also my understanding that all seven major *qira'at* are considered co-valid, and are all considered perfectly valid methods of reading the Qur'an. Why, then, did the Hafs reading gain such predominance? Is it somehow more "correct" than the others? Was it promulgated (and the others restricted) via political decree? Is there actually no rational explanation, and it's just...one of those things?

> 1612 - أنا القاضي أبو بكر أحمد بن الحسن الحرشي نا أبو العباس محمد بن > يعقوب الأصم نا الحسن بن علي بن عفان ، نا أبو أسامة ، حدثني عمرو بن > ميمون ، قال : سمعت ابن حاضر أو أبا حاضر رجلا من الأزد يقول : سمعت ابن > عباس ، يقول : « إني لجالس عند معاوية إذ قرأ هذه الآية » وجدها تغرب في > عين حامية « فقلت ما تقرأ إلا ( حمئة (1) ) فقال معاوية لعبد الله بن > عمرو : كيف تقرأها ؟ قال : كما قرأتها يا أمير المؤمنين قال ابن عباس : > فقلت : في بيتي نزل القرآن . فأرسل معاوية إلى كعب فجاءه فقال : أين تجد > الشمس تغرب في التوراة يا كعب ؟ قال : أما العربية فأنتم أعلم بها وأما > الشمس فإني أجدها في التوراة تغرب في ماء وطين ، وأشار كعب بيده إلى > المغرب ، فقلت لابن عباس : أما إني لو كنت عندكما لرفدتك كيما تزداد به > بصرا في قوله ( حمئة ) فقال ابن عباس : » ما هو ؟ فقلت : فيما نأثر من > قول تبع فيما ذكر به ذا القرنين في تعلقه بالعلم واتباعه إياه : قوله بلغ > المشارق والمغارب يبتغي أسباب أمر من حكيم مرشد فرأى معاد الشمس عند > غروبها في عين ذي خلب وثأط حرمد قال ابن عباس : وما الخلب ؟ قلت : الطين > بكلامهم قال : فما الثأط ؟ قلت : الحمأة قال : وما الحرمد ؟ قلت : الأسود > ، قال : فدعا رجلا أو غلاما فقال : اكتب ما يقول هذا « (Source ) > > أبو أسامة عن عمرو بن ميمون قال : سمعت أبا حاضر أو ابن حاضر رجل من الأزد يقول : سمعت ابن عباس يقول : إنّي لجالس عند معاوية إذ قرأ هذه الآية : ( وجدها تغرب في عين حامية ) فقلت : ما نقرؤها إلاّ { حَمِئَةٍ } . فقال معاوية لعبد الله بن عمر : وكيف تقرؤها ؟ قال : كما قرأتها يا أمير المؤمنين . قال ابن عباس : فقلت : في بيتي نزل القرآن . فأرسل معاوية إلى كعب ، فجاءه فقال : أين تجد الشمس تغرب في التوراة يا كعب ؟ قال : أما العربية فأنتم أعلم بها ، وأما الشمس فإنّي أجدها في التوراة تغرب في ماء وطين . قال : فقلت لابن عباس : لو كنت عندكما لانشدت كلاماً تزداد به نصرة في قولك : { حَمِئَةٍ } . قال ابن عباس : فإذن ما هو ؟ فقلت : قول تبع (Source: Kashaf Wa-Al Bayan fee Tafsir al-Quran al-Thalabi on 18:86 )

Assalamualaikum I have read academic page on verse 30:1-10, al-Rum, according The paper is long and goes into great detail, but I will summarize just the first few pages, which I read. The 4 readings are: ġulibat al-Rūm … sa-yaġlibūna, “the Romans have been vanquished … they will van- quish” ġalabat al-Rūm … sa-yuġlabūna, “the Romans have vanquished … they will be van- quished”; ġalabat al-Rūm … sa-yaġlibūna, “the Romans have vanquished … they will win”; ġulibat al-Rūm … sa-yuġlabūna, “the Romans have been vanquished … they will be vanquished.” Is 7 or 10 reading of Quran, follow this reading(anyone of 4), if not then what this reading is about?

I was looking at different reading of Al-Quran by Warsh on website Quranflash , Website provide to two kind of Warsh (Warsh - Asbahani way and Warsh - King Fahd Complex), as I was working on Wasl reading practices I want see other reading also,I find something which I don't known. please Explain the Following :-Frist, Different style of writing Wasl (solid dot over alif with fataha) please Explain that. Second and more Important(in 23:14) is spelling of khalaqa, why single dot? spelling and it's different from this Warsh by some-website But this different is not seen in nquran.com

[Tanzil.net](http://tanzil.net/wiki/Medina_Mushaf) writes: >The Medina Mushaf ... publishes the holy quran according to **three famous narration**, i.e., *Hafs, Warsh, and Ad-Duriyy.* The Quran text provided by Tanzil is based on the Medina Mushaf, narration of Hafs. From there I came to know tht currently there are 3 there different versions of Quran. Digging up a little more, I found that there used to be several 'authentic' versions of Quran: >Even though the Hadith spoke of 7 versions, **Al-Tabari** concluded that **8** of the existing versions of the Quran were ‘authentic’ (later scholars increased this **to 10**) [[source](http://www.free-minds.org/which-quran)] Also, according to aforementioned source, ***Verse counts** for Hafs are 6236, while Warsh records 6214.* That source also lists some differences in these two Quran, and even more can be found in this [pdf](http://www.free-minds.org/sites/default/files/WhichQuran.pdf) . So, contrary to our firm believe that there has been no alteration in Quran, there are different versions of Quran. So which Quran should we follow and why? And why should there be different Qurans to begin with ? --- Update === After reading various suggestions, I came across this hadith: >Abû Qilaba narrated: >>It has reached me that the Prophet(P) said: "The Qur'an was sent down according to seven ahruf: command and prohibition, encouragement of good and discouragement of evil, dialectic, narrative, and parable." However, the [article](http://www.islamic-awareness.org/Quran/Text/Qiraat/hafs.html) went to explain it like this: *[use CTRL+F to jump into exact place]* >The forms matched the dialects of following seven tribes: Quraysh, Hudhayl, Thaqîf, Hawâzin, Kinânah, Tamîm and Yemen. The revelation of the Qur'an in seven different ahruf made its recitation and memorization much easier for the various tribes. Again reading reading further, we can find that : >Following the distribution of the official copies, all the other ahruf were **dropped** and the Qur'an began to be read in only **one harf**. Thus, the Qur'an which is available through out the world today is written and recited only according to the harf of Quraysh Why do we **still have many ahruf then**? It would be even more helpful if you could explain **how the ahruf map to various dialect**.

Assalamualaikum, Which Qiraat was the first complete Quran manuscript in the time of Abu Bakr? Do the Uthmaanic mushaf cater the 7 mutawwatir qiroaat? barakAllaahu fiikum.

While looking into the Islamic scriptures I came across two terms, Ahruf and Qira'at. Both seem to began with seven varieties. Later on, as time passed by more have been added to them. What do they both mean? How they differ from one another? As of now, how many of each of them are available among Muslims?

Salam, so I was wondering if anyone has a list of all different spelling, not actually the rules themself, just the different spelling. If not, does anyone have a online Mushaf for Shu’bah?

In the Quran's Surah Al-Lail verse 3, we read: > وَمَا خَلَقَ ٱلذَّكَرَ وَٱلْأُنثَىٰٓ -[ \[Source\]][1] But in an authentic Hadith of Sahih-Bukhari, we read: > The companions of Abdullah bin Masud came to Abu Darda, > he looked for them and found them. > Then he asked them,: 'Who among you can recite (Qur'an) as Abdullah > recites it?" They replied, "All of us." He asked, "Who among you knows > it by heart?" They pointed at 'Alqama. Then he asked Alqama. "How did > you hear Abdullah bin Masud reciting Surat Al-Lail (The Night)?" > Alqama recited: **'By the male and the female.' (‏وَالذَّكَرِ وَالأُنْثَ)**. Abu Ad-Darda said, "I > testify that I heard me Prophet reciting it likewise, but these people > want me to recite it. And by Allah, I will not follow them."[ \[Source\]][2] Can anyone pls explain what is happening here? Thanks.

It is reported from ibn Abbas RA that he spotted a mistake in 17:23. His opinion is recorded in the Tafsir of Razi volume 10 page 30: >Maimon bin Mehran narrated from Ibn Abbas that he said: ‘The actual word in this verse was ‘ووصى’ but ‘و’ got mixed with ‘ص’ that is why it is recited as ‘وَقَضَىٰ رَبُّكَ’. Then he said: ‘Had it been fate then none would have disobeyed Allah as it would have been impossible to go against fate of Allah’. This narration was narrated from him by Dahak and Saeed bin Jubair and this is the Qirat of Ali and Abdullah. I've shared this report, alongside others, before in a different post but haven't got a conclusive answer on this specifically. Can someone help address this issue? Is the current reading as equally authoritative as the reading of ibn Abbas RA? Was he RA unaware of the variant?