Asalaam alaikum warahmatullahi wabarakatuh, About a month ago my wife requested a talaq from me due to pressure from her family and a month before that they instructed her to fetch her belongings from me and move in with them. After 2 months of no contact we started communicating and had intercourse after her visiting me. In the visit i could see that she still loved me and was still inlove with me as we discussed the reasons she left me. On another occasion due to the passing of a close friend I collected her and attended his funeral. Thereafter we had intercourse again, but with intention to reconcile. I have arranged 2 witnesses to draw up a document to revoke the talaq and take her back as myself and my wife agreed to reconcilation and I would rather take her back in all ways possible as I am afraid her family would try and find ways to keep us apart. **Is intercourse a way of taking her back?** Once I have taken her back with witnesses can her parents keep her away from me? She will not be present but she is aware of me revoking the talaaq, is that permissible? Shukraan in advance for your assistance.

In case that Khul'a الخلع happened and the wife and husband have legally been separated, but want to get back together. I assume that there's no turning back (reconciliation) within the 'Iddah as it would be the case for talaq. Nevertheless on this topic there are two different views one setting khul'a "equal to talaq" (divorce) and another setting it "equal to faskh" (invalidation) as I've learnt from https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/35273/what-is-the-period-of-iddah-after-khula . So there might be at least two different opinions on whether or not a reconciliation is not permissible. I'd like to have an answer addressing the possibly different fiqh views on this: - Is it allowed to reconcile during the 'Iddah? - If not is it allowed to re-marry during the 'Iddah or must they wait?

A husband under the pressure of his wife, without willingness to divorce her signs divorce paper but the signature of the husband is not genuine or the different from the signature on nikkahnama. Husband knowingly, deliberately signs the different signature than the genuine. Is this divorce valid?

As-salāmu ʿalaykum, I would appreciate clarification regarding my marriage situation. • Talaq 1: 19 May 2025 — my husband pronounced one talaq after I requested divorce. We reconciled the same day. • Talaq 2: 19 June 2025 — my husband pronounced one talaq after I again requested divorce. • Talaq 3: 7 July 2025 — my husband pronounced one talaq. I later realised I was menstruating at the time. • Reconciliation: 28 July 2025 — during what I believed was my ‘iddah, I asked my husband to state “I take you back as my wife,” and we resumed marital relations. No new nikah was performed. Could you please clarify: 1. Does the talaq pronounced on 7 July during menstruation count? 2. What is the current talaq count? 3. Are we Islamically considered married? JazākumAllāhu khayran.

As salaamu alaikum. Me and my kids recently fled domestic violence and are extremely struggling. We have no support and no family around us. Im trying to move near my aunty who has found me work but cant financially afford the move due to being on benefits. Am I allowed any zakat help and if so, how can I get help? Jazakallah khair.

A question that came up during a conversation with some friends. If a woman who has been divorced from her violent husband and through a court of law in the UAE is awarded a certain amount of money from the court, can her now son who apparently has become her guardian stop her from gaining access to what is rightfully hers? Could she go to court to overturn this action from her son?

Scholars of Islam generally claim that it is not permissible for a woman to demand alimony from her ex-Husband except in instances of child support. However, I came across this Ayah in Quran 2:241 that states: > وَلِلْمُطَلَّقَاتِ مَتَاعٌۢ بِٱلْمَعْرُوفِ ۖ حَقًّا عَلَى ٱلْمُتَّقِينَ > > Reasonable provisions must be made for divorced women—a duty on those > mindful ˹of Allah˺. > > Surah Al-Baqarah (2:241) The vast majority of jurists interpret this as a Mahr given to women whose dower was not specified during the time of consumation of the marriage. However, according to IslamQA , it is the opinion of Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyya and Sheikh Muhammad ibn Salih al-Uthaymin that this must be given to all divorced women, even if the marriage has been consumated and the Mahr has been given. > Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: Maintenance must be given to every divorced women, even after consummation. What is the opinion of the four schools of thought and other classical Islamic scholars on this topic. Is this a one time payment or regular monthly payments akin to alimony in the West.

I'm researching several verses from the Qur'an and as it is my first time to delve into the Islamic religion I am having difficulty with some of the translations and such. > 65: Divorce, verse 4, says, Pickthall, "And for such of your women as despair of menstruation, if ye doubt, their period (of waiting) shall be three months, along with those who have it not. And for those with child, their period shall be till they bring forth their burden. And whosoever keepeth his duty to Allah, He maketh his course easy for him." But then we see... > 65: Divorce, verse 4 says, Sahih International Translation, "And those who no longer expect menstruation among your women - if you doubt, then their period is three months, and [also for] those who have not menstruated. And for those who are pregnant, their term is until they give birth. And whoever fears Allah - He will make for him of his matter ease." I've had it presented to me that this verse encourages marrying underage girls but as far as I can tell it has nothing to do with underage women but rather women undergoing menopause? Or reaching the age where they no longer experience menses. Does this verse discuss an underage wife or simply a wife who is too old to menstruate?

okay so a bit of context my mom and dad are divorced and my dad is in Africa my parents have been divorced since I was around 3 my mom took us with her to America and their getting back together and their both in Africa right now and they won’t be back until after my birthday and my dad really excited because it’s going to be his first time giv8ng me a birthday gift and my mom said she’ll send me a 100 dollars and I tried telling my dad that I don’t want anything but he’s insistent and if I tell him it’s because I think it’s haram his going to say I’m overthinking it and if I say I don’t want anything he’s going to think that I’m mad their not going to be here for my birthday and my moms going to do the same and I have a hard time telling them no

If husband says talaq talaq talaq three times in one sitting will it be considered as three talaqs or counted as one as talaq in quran is to be given by keeping gaps or iddath.and he has repeated same in past on call uttering talaq three times..kindly guide as per quran n sunnah

If a man says to his wife I divorce you but she never heard it is that divorce is going to be valid

If a husband, while explaining how talaq is given to a wife, pronounces talaq twice in front of his wife, will the talaq be considered effective (valid)?as he didn’t pronounce talaq intentionally towards his wife, he was just explaining how actually Talak is given. And that time he said and pronounce , if he gave One Talak, Two Talak and the wife stopped him and she told him that she understood. So Is their Any Talaq be considered??

According to fatwa if husband says talaq to wife in state of purity but they had relations the previous night, our of anger as there was a heated argument, is this talaq valid. This happened on many occasions as my husband has a temper problem. He mentioned talaq different occassions but this all happened where we had relations the day before. I am really confused because the local sheikh says its valid and doesnt listen to the facts of how it happened and when it happened. Local sheikh says that even if woman is in state if purity and even if the couple had intercourse the day before the talaq, that the talaq is valid. Could someone please advise, as I am already packing my belongings and making plans to move out.

> *EDIT*: I am putting a bounty on this question. Therefore I added references and precisions to address the comments (some of which, I > believe, seem to have been posted without reading this question). This _may_ seem like a question that was answered [here](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/22887/what-are-the-rights-of-un-married-girls-to-choose-husband-in-islam/22890#22890) , or [here](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/12042/is-forced-marriage-to-a-religious-man-allowed/12086#12086) , or [here](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/29816/forcefully-married) (links from this site). But I looked everywhere, and no, none of these, or any other sites I found, would answer my question. All answers, all hadiths, all sources say that the consent of the girl is mandatory for the marriage to be valid **and** that her silence is a mark of agreement. As treated in [this question](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/22982/does-islam-support-pedophilia-or-child-marriages/23473#23473) , marriage with an infant girl, no matter how young, is allowed. (Yes, I am aware that **sexual penetration** is not permitted - see question 2, below). I am talking solely about the **marriage contract**. That is also confirmed [here](https://islamqa.info/en/146882) , with more than ample references and links to other sources. I cite here some of that link: > Ibn Qudaamah (may Allah have mercy on him) said in al-Sharh > al-Kabeer, 7/386: > > With regard to females, the father **may give** his minor, virgin daughter > who has not yet reached the age of nine in marriage, and there is **no > difference of opinion** concerning that, if he gives her in marriage to > someone who is compatible. Ibn al-Mundhir said: **All of those scholars** > from whom we acquired knowledge **unanimously agreed** that it is > permissible for a father to give his minor daughter in marriage if he > arranges her to someone who is compatible, and it is permissible for > him to do that even **if she is reluctant**. End quote. Now, to be clear: yes, a girl who is old enough to understand the situation must be asked, and if she says no, the marriage cannot occur as it would be forced and therefore invalid (since her consent is mandatory). All the sources and references I looked up agreed on that. The marriage of an infant, however, can be decided by her father because her father has the right to make that decision in her stead, much like he can manage her money in her stead, until she comes of age. So the marriage of an infant is allowed, but sexual penetration should be postponed "until she is physically able to bear intercourse"-quote from link above. One should insist, at this point, that "physically able to bear intercourse" does **not** mean "puberty", since intercourse with prepubescent girls *is* allowed (see all exegeses of [this verse](http://www.altafsir.com/Tafasir.asp?tMadhNo=0&tTafsirNo=73&tSoraNo=65&tAyahNo=4&tDisplay=yes&UserProfile=0&LanguageId=2)) . It simply means what it says: able to bear penetration. Getting back to the marriage **contract**, which is the main point of this question: if the girl is too young to protest, since she could not have possibly given her consent and remained "silent", she would grow up into a relationship and a situation that she did not choose. And even if sexual intercourse is postponed, she would eventually be subject to it. How can that marriage *not* be considered *forced* ? That was the main question of this thread. However, if you have answers, *and sources*, to the following additional questions, I would be very grateful. I looked for a some years now, I read all the books I could find in three languages, and I did not find what I was looking for. 1. If a girl that was married when she was 6 months old grows up and reaches puberty, can she un-marry on the grounds that she did not give her consent when she was a baby? I know that in Islam, a girl cannot divorce, only the man can, but I know she *can* make her case to a judge and in some cases the judge can side with her if the husband is unsuitable. But let us suppose her husband is very kind, very religious, very faithful, can provide for her and generally satisfies absolutely all conditions for a good husband. Can a judge allow the divorce *solely* on the basis that she did not give her consent? Did this ever happen? 2. As said above, sexual penetration is *specifically* only allowed when "she is physically able to bear intercourse", but are other forms of sexual pleasure allowed ? This is crude, I know, but there should be no "haya'" (shyness, حياء) in religion, and I have no way of making myself understood otherwise: For example, can a man masturbate with her hands or thighs? can he kiss her like he would kiss a grown woman? Can he touch her? Those are pleasures that "her body can bear". The only Hadiths I could find mentioned penetration, not other, one would say "non intrusive", forms of pleasures. I know Khomeini says so in his Tahrirolvasyleh, but he offers no sources, only he opinion, and that is not enough. On the other hand, the other sources I could find clearly talk about intercourse (when they say the man should wait). They do not, however, forbid such things as foreplay, kissing, and other forms of non-penetrating pleasures. I am looking for such references. 3. If the answer is no, then I have a follow up question. As I understand it, marriage in Islam has two main justifications: The first is to provide a legal frame into which a family can be built - kids brought up, etc. The second justification is to provide a legal frame into which sex can be had (to avoid fornication). Marriage to a child does not satisfy the first justification -since the girl is unable to have kids before puberty - but *could* satisfy the second justification. However, if the answer to question 2 is no, if even the second justification is out of the picture, what is the wisdom of marrying a child? Finally, and this is important, please understand that this is **not** a question about the marriage of the prophet with Aicha. All questions asked on that matter were answered time and time again. Please only restrict the answers to *general* Islamic rules that apply to everyone. Also, a gentle reminder: We agree that forced marriage is forbidden. If you know anyone who can answer, please do let them know. Second EDIT: I just would like to add that this is not a question about paedophilia in Islam (for which ample discussion has been had [here](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/22982/does-islam-support-pedophilia-or-child-marriages?lq=1)) . Please do not debate the "different cultural perceptions of readiness and maturity for sexual relations", it would be besides the point. I am sorry for being firm on this, but it is a question that haunts me since I found out about this subject and I would be saddened if the discussion goes astray. Third EDIT: It has been brought to my attention that question 1, above, is not clear regarding what I meant by "a woman cannot get a divorce, a man can". What I meant was "cannot get *automatically*" a divorce, unlike the man who decides alone if he wants to divorce, a woman's initiating of a divorce is known as خلع or (khul'a) and is not the same thing as a divorce (in that her saying "I divorce you" is not enough). Although this misunderstanding is not critical to the overall question, I needed to add it to avoid having the discussion go astray.

During a period of anger, my husband said the triple talaq. As a revert, I didn't understand the consequence of what he was saying and I've had to Google this. Is it really true that I'm now divorced with no hope of reconciliation? I was drawn to the beauty of Islam by it's fairness, reading book after book on how fair Islam is to women and how we we are given more rights than are given in society and the Catholic faith I came from. Please can someone clarify this for me and offer some explanation on how this protects women. This has really knocked my faith.

If a husband is a good human being but the wife never liked him and is not attracted towards him and thinks that he can not provide well for her financially then is this a valid reason to seek khula?

why is divorce in Islam unfair to women?. I heard women can only ask for divorce under certain circumstances and only from the court while men can get it as he pleases.

Assalamu alaikum, i hope you’re doing well in shaa Allah. I’m considering divorcing my husband as i’ve exhausted all other options in making the relationship work. Alhamdulillah. We are based in the USA, we had nikkah done but didn’t file with the USA Law. How do i proceed with islamic divorce? Do i need witnesses? Do i just tell him i’m divorcing him? What if he doesn’t agree, who do i contact to help? Thank you for you time jazakAllah khayr

As far as my limited understanding of Islam. A man should keep the balance between providing for his family (wife and children) while staying devoted to his Mother. My Mother once told me that a Son should be devoted and obey his mother no matter what. She gave me one example that "If a Mother asks his Son to get a divorce, then he should get a divorce, no questions asked". Although I am also aware that a divorce is the most hated permissible thing to Allah. So which one we should follow? Stay devoted and obey to the Mother to get a divorce, even though it will break a family and potentially break a child's future? Or stay committed to the marriage?

Is it correct that in Islam divorce can not be given during wife's menstrual period? I would like some reference.