Salamu Alaikum.How is there no compulsion in religion when the apostates are quite literally compelled to come back to Islam? And how can their choice be unbiased when they literally have to choose between life or death? Jazakullah

This hadith from tirmidhi says - > Abu Sa'eed narrated: "On the Day of Badr, the Romans had a victory > over the Persians. So the believers were pleased with that, then the > following was revealed: 'Alif Lam Mim. The Romans have been defeated, > up to His saying: 'the believers will rejoice - with the help of > Allah... (30:1-5)'" He said: "So the believers were happy with the > victory of the Romans over the Persians." From the wording, it sounds like it was revealed on the day Romans were victorious.

If you want to buy a PS5 or Computer with installments (monthly payments) and you would pay more 20-60€ more than the initial price when you would be done with your monthly payments with a annual interest of 10% after the first 10 months, would this be considered Riba?

Aslamu Aleykum I am a licensed taxi driver working in Barcelona, Spain. I bought my license for around €135,000, the license and the car are completely mine but still i am strictly required by law to use the taximeter at all times. That means I cannot adjust my prices, even when demand is extremely high and passengers are everywhere. Meanwhile, companies like Uber, Cabify, and Bolt — operating under "VTC" licenses — are legally allowed to raise their prices whenever demand increases. And it’s not just a small increase. Their prices can skyrocket to outrageous levels. For example, a trip that would normally cost €15 can easily cost €45 or even over €80 during peak demand. These companies can multiply the price 4, 5 or even 8 times — and still operate legally. This system is deeply unfair. We, the taxi drivers, are more experienced, better trained, and even have a lower accident rate than VTC drivers, but we’re forced to stick to rigid pricing — no matter what the market conditions are. There are too many other taxi drivers — including Muslims — offer fixed prices during high-demand periods, charging more than the meter. The customer agrees, there’s no trickery, and they make more money. I truly want to do the same. I feel it every time I watch others earning more while I stick to the rules. But because I believe it might be haram, I hold myself back — even though it feels like I'm being punished for trying to do the right thing. I am struggling, and I sincerely need answers to these questions: -Is it haram to agree on a higher fixed fare with a customer during high demand — if the customer agrees clearly and there’s no deception? -In certain cases — like picking up wealthy clients from luxury hotels — would it be haram to add a small extra charge (e.g. €2.50 or €4.50) without telling the client, knowing that the amount is small, likely unnoticed, and causes them no harm — even if it is technically against the law? **Similar to a shopkeeper selling products to tourists with a little increase in price.** This is not just a financial issue. It affects my faith, my peace of mind, and my motivation to keep working. I want to earn my income in a way that is halal and honest, but I also want fairness in a system that feels heavily one-sided. I also believe that many Muslim taxi drivers around the world are going through the same struggle. Your answer would not only help me — it could bring clarity and relief to many others in this industry. I sincerely thank you for your time and guidance.

I joined a Ramadan competition recently. They award the winners by measuring the deeds we did to Allah and the person who has the highest points is awarded. Daily they update a form to fill, it basically consists of the number of Thahajjath rakaths prayed, juzu completed, number of dikrs done, amount of sadakah given, number of tharaweeh prayers. Based on the number we get points on daily basis. My point is, is it right to measure what we do to Allah and tell to them? This question rose because I don't count the number of dikrs I do because I do it with pleasure and go countless, also I don't feel it's right to measure what we do to Allah because Allah SWT doesn't give us countless blessings not by measuring. It's just eternal is what I think. I want to know whether this competition is right or wrong and if its wrong I am ready to quit at anytime.

I am considering a non-Arabic (Slavic) name for my baby: Damir / Daamir. In Slavic usage, this name is reported to have a meaning related to peace, and in Turkish it may have meanings related to heart (or similar positive connotations). My concern arises when the name is written or pronounced in Arabic -> ضامِر It closely resembles an Arabic word that may carry a negative or undesirable meaning, such as “slim” or “weak.” Because of this, I am worried about whether choosing such a name would be Islamically permissible. My questions are: Is it permissible in Islam to use a non-Arabic name for a child if, when pronounced or written in Arabic, it resembles an Arabic word with an undesirable meaning? Does the Arabic resemblance have any legal or religious effect on the permissibility of the name? Are there any guidelines regarding non-Arabic names whose meanings differ across languages? I want to make sure the name is appropriate and does not carry any negative implications Islamically. Guidance would be appreciated.

First of all, I would like to thank in advance for answering in the most kindest way. And i apologize for making my questions so big. Just wanted to let you know where i'm coming from. I have heard that previously during Imam Malik's time, some slave women were walking around or getting out of their homes bare breasted. He had strongly condemned this practice due to his understanding of the Quran/Sunnah as per this narration: > Kitaab Al-Jami‘ of Al-Imam Ibn Abi Zayd Al-Qayrawani Al-Maliki (died > 386 AH): He said, "He (i.e. Al-Imam Malik ibn Anas) strongly > disapproved of the behaviour of the slave women of Madinah in going > out uncovered above the lower garment." He said, "I have spoken to the > Sultan about it, but I have not received a reply." He said, "Beat the > slave women if they do that." I am aware that slave women had a relaxed awrah compared to the free women as per the differing opinions of the various schools of thought due to their work in servile environments and veiling was prohibited as a social status indicator but in case of **fitnah** or **harassment** or **fear of trouble** they are supposed to cover themselves up as free women have to do. I am also aware that in some point in history, there were practices of slave women being **paraded bare breasted** for attracting the highest bidders or buyers. Also I understand that a seller can adorn their slave women for attracting buyers similar to how a woman is adorned for marriage. I understand that Islam humanizes slaves by granting them certain rights, emphasizing their emancipation, and encouraging them to be treated like family members—with dignity, kindness, and respect. Based on my understanding of the commentaries from various schools of thought, even during the inspection process in slave markets at the time of the Prophet and his companions, the environment was supposedly controlled, with minimal exposure encouraged unless absolutely necessary, and only with the genuine intention to buy could you look or touch upto some extent (over clothing in Umar R.A's case), touching prohibited in the presence of lust. (please correct me if i'm wrong). **My Question is as follows:** - Was bare chested display for ***auctions*** or ***convenience*** or ***parading*** them bare chested for attracting the highest bidders, is that islamic or buyers islamically sanctioned (haram or halal)? Or was it just a corrupt practice that the masters used to do to exploit their slave women for commercial purposes or personal benefits? If it is halal, why? It spreads fitnah, encourages lustful intentions,objectifies and exploits slave women, public indecency, strips off their dignity, violates modesty rules etc which is quite contrary to inspection which usually happens for practical reasons out of necessity as opposed to lustful intentions. Also please answer this as well if possible Question regarding Slave Women Inspection Limits in the marketplace Thanks!

In Surah Al-Waqiah people are divided into three categories: *Quran 56:7-56:14:* >وَكُنتُمْ أَزْوَاجًا ثَلَاثَةً > > And ye shall be sorted out into three classes: > > فَأَصْحَابُ الْمَيْمَنَةِ مَا أَصْحَابُ الْمَيْمَنَةِ > > Then (there will be) the Companions of the Right Hand;- What will be the Companions of the Right Hand? > > وَأَصْحَابُ الْمَشْأَمَةِ مَا أَصْحَابُ الْمَشْأَمَةِ > And the Companions of the Left Hand,- what will be the Companions of the Left Hand? > > > وَالسَّابِقُونَ السَّابِقُونَ > > And those **Foremost** (in Faith) will be Foremost (in the Hereafter). > > > أُولَٰئِكَ الْمُقَرَّبُونَ > > These will be those Nearest to Allah: > > > > فِي جَنَّاتِ النَّعِيمِ > > In Gardens of Bliss: > > > > ثُلَّةٌ مِّنَ الْأَوَّلِينَ > > A number of people from those of old, > > > وَقَلِيلٌ مِّنَ الْآخِرِينَ > > And a few from those of **later times**. As far as I know, *later times* means after the Prophet was sent. So, who are these "foremost" and why they are few in later times?

I previously submitted a ḥadīth written as: “My followers will not support an error.” I am not sure whether this wording is correct. Please provide the correct and authentic wording of this ḥadīth if what I submitted is inaccurate, along with its source if possible.

‘’'La ilaha illallah Muhammadur Rasulullah' is referenced only in weak hadiths and is considered a Bid'ah. So why is it used on the Saudi flag and in mosques instead of 'Ashhadu an la ilaha illallah wa Anna Muhammadur Rasulullah'’’

If husband says talaq talaq talaq three times in one sitting will it be considered as three talaqs or counted as one as talaq in quran is to be given by keeping gaps or iddath.and he has repeated same in past on call uttering talaq three times..kindly guide as per quran n sunnah

I have read this with regards to the evil eye here however it seems to explain how to protect yourself from the evil eye. However how does one cure the evil eye once one believes he or she has been affected by it? Is it the same procedure? Secondly from what I vaguely understand a bath is required, can this be any bath or is ghusl with specific intention of purifying ones self from the evil eye required? Does one have to go into the bath with intention of purification or can one take a regular bath and then practise those instructions in the above link (if they are for curing)?

I have heard that traditional dresses are better for so many people. But each culture has it's own version of traditional. I am a convert; I have been told that Pakistani garments are more modest, that Afghani garments are more modest, that Saudi garments are more modest etc etc. But they say it is inappropriate for women to wear things that are in their culture men would wear only, like pants from Pakistani culture (though it is traditional for them, women have only worn pants in the west for under a century). I can not wear thin silks and light cottons in northern Alberta; it seems very non-practical and false of me to wear the garments of other cultures, yet our imam seems to think that more traditional garments are better. I am thinking a petition in our local mosque encouraging Muslim women who are new to Canada to dress warmly instead of freezing in their cultural clothes with a used winter coat collection for those in need; this has nothing to do with showing skin or not wearing hijab. How would I go about convincing those in need to dress for the cold, so they don't get sick or have to suffer?

This narration is found in Tabaqat Al-Kubra > أخبرنا محمد بن عمر حدثني مسلمة بن عبد الله بن عروة عن زيد بن أبي عتاب عن أبي سلمة بن عبد الرحمن قال اقتحم الناس على النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم في بيت عائشة ينظرون إليه فقالوا كيف يموت وهو شهيد علينا ونحن شهداء على الناس فيموت ولم يظهر على الناس لا والله ما مات ولكنه رفع كما رفع عيسى بن مريم صلى الله عليه وسلم وليرجعن وتوعدوا من قال إنه مات > > Narrated Abu Salamah bin ‘Abd al-Rahman: The people rushed to the Prophet, may Allah bless him, in the apartment of ‘Aisha to look at him. They said: “How can he die since he is a witness to us and we are witnesses to other people? … No! by Allah! He has not died; but he has been raised as ‘Eisa ibn Maryam was made to ascend and he will return, and they warned those who said that he had died ... ” > > [Tabaqat al-Kubra 2/271](https://al-maktaba.org/book/9351/2582#p1) Is this authentic?

The Qur'an permits Muslim men to marry up to four women. However, Prophet (Sallallahu'alayhiwassalam) was given permission in the Qur'an to marry more than four women in Qur'an 33:50. There are many theories for why this permission was only given to Prophet (Sallallahu'alayhiwassalam). One theory is that he was given this permission to make truce between Muslims and enemies of Muslims. **My main question is: is there any evidence from Hadith or Seerah that this theory holds any water?**

I know there are many Sahih narrations that say that Prophet Muhammad (Sallallahu'alaihiwassalam) used to visit his wives equally. However, my question in here is about this particular Hadith with **these particular wordings**. My question is about the following narration:- > Allah's Prophet (Sallallahu'alaihiwassalam) used to divide visits to > his wives equally and say, "O Allah, this is my division concerning > what I possess, so do not blame me concerning what You possess and I > do not." This narration is found in the following Hadith collections:- Bulugh Al-Maram, Book 8, Hadith 104 Mishkat Al-Masabih, 3235 Sunan Abu Dawud, 2134 Jami' At-Tirmidhi, 1140 According to some sources, Hakim and Ibn Hibban graded the version in Bulugh Al-Maram as authentic. However, Imam Tirmidhi has stated that it is Mursal narration due to a missing link in the transmitters of the narration. As far as the version in Mishkat Al-Masabih is concerned, Albani has declared it as *Jayid*. However, I am not sure if Albani is correct in his gradings because Albani has been criticized a lot by Hadith scholars for his gradings. As far as the version in Jami' At-Tirmidhi is concerned, it has been narrated by the following chain of transmitters:- Muhammad bin Yahya bin Abi Umar (Found In Sahih Muslim 2003h, 1341c, etc) Bashr bin al-Sari al-Afwah (Found in Sahih Al-Bukhari 7048 and Sahih Muslim 1452e, 635b, 2351b) Hammad bin Salama (Found in Sahih Muslim 2567b, 2379, etc) The link between Ayoub al-Sakhtiyani and Abu Qilabah can be found in Sahih Al-Bukhari 5517, 5463, Sahih Muslim 110c, and in various places in the Sahihyaen) Abdullah bin Yazid bin Zayd (Found In Sahih Bukhari 5516, 4414, 1159, etc) Aisha bint Abi Bakr (May Allah Be Pleased With Her) is obviously a reliable narrator. So is this narration with these particular wording suitable to quote and is it Sahih (authentic)?

The following Hadith has often been cited by many people to prove that the Jewish Torah has not been corrupted:- He (the Prophet, sallallaahu ‘alayhi wa sallam) was given the Torah and he took away the pillow from beneath him and then he put the Torah on it and then he said: “I believe in you [Torah] and in the One Who had sent you down.” (Sunan Abi Dawud 4449) Many people believe that since Prophet Muhammad (Sallallahu'alayhiwassalam) said, "I believed in thee and in Him Who revealed thee", this proves that the Torah that was in front of him was not corrupted. This is something contrary to the Muslim claim that the Torah in its present form has been corrupted. **Question: What is the truth behind this narration? Is this narration even authentic? It has been cited in Ibn Kathir's Abridged version of commentary.**

I have the intention to do it and then i say bismillah and then I wash hands three times and then washing my private parts and then I do wudu and then I wash my hair till it’s wet and then I wash most body parts on right side three times and the same on the left and then I stand beneath water and circle around three times to wash all

As I and in all probability all of you know, lie or Kezb is counted as a major sin or in other word it is considered as Kabaer (majors) sin. But the question which I am looking for its answer is that what the reason(s) is that Islam declares this act as a major act? In other word, what is its negative point(s) which made it as a major sin and is there any hadith about its reason? *Note: both Shia and Sunni perspective would be appreciated.*

Salam is being sarcastic a form of lying? I was talking to my brother and he said something and I was like "oh sorry, my bad" in a sarcastic way, does that count as lying? And also when they know you are being sarcastic/joking is that okay?