I would like to ask, is Islam really a religion of peace? My question arises because, why in some of your Quranic verses does Allah encourage you to kill specially those who do not believe in Islam? Quran (2:191-193 ) And Fight for the cause of Allah? Quran (2:244 ) And your God will kill those who do not accept this religion. Quran (3:56 ) I am a Catholic so to speak, and I made this question as a part of my research paper. Since I do not know any Muslim, I thought of asking it here. I ask for your wisdom, that is all.

According to the Qur'an or Hadith, is it permissible for a Muslim to lie in some circumstances? If so, under what circumstance may a Muslim lie?

**I am currently planning to launch a digital platform that connects sponsorship seekers (e.g., athletes, sports teams, influencers, social or educational events) with potential sponsors (brands). I want to ensure that my business model and income are 100% Halal according to Islamic Sharia.** In the sports industry, betting and gambling companies are major sponsors. I am considering a system with the following logic: By default, the platform will only show Halal/Ethical brands. However, I am thinking of adding a feature where a user (seeker) can manually "opt-in" or check a box to receive sponsorship offers from betting or gambling companies. If the user chooses to opt-in, the platform will facilitate the connection and I might earn a service fee or commission from that transaction. My specific concerns are: 1. As the developer and owner of the platform, would I be sinful for providing the infrastructure and "option" for Haram activities, even if the choice is made by the user? 2. Would the commission or service fee earned from a betting site sponsorship be considered Haram, even if the user explicitly requested to see those sponsors? 3. To discourage betting sites, if I include a clause in my Terms of Service (ToS) that any betting site registering under a false category will have its payment forfeited, can I keep that money as a penalty, or must it be donated to charity? I want to build a sustainable business but do not want to compromise on Sharia principles. What is the scholarly view on this "opt-in" model for prohibited industries?

I have started to believe that Hellfire is going to end after thousands and thousands of years based on following report. ʿAbd ibn Humayd, who is among the most esteemed scholars of hadith, narrated in his well-known tafsir: He said: Sulaiman ibn Harb narrated to us, Hammad ibn Salamah narrated to us, from Thabit, from al-Hasan al-Basri, who said: ʿUmar said, __**“If the people of the Fire were to remain in the Fire for a period equal to the sand of ʿAlij, there would still be a day when they are brought out.”**__ Source: Al-Radd ʿalā man qāla bifanāʾ al-jannah wa al-nār Ibn Taymiyyah Pg 49-55 My question is what happens to disbeliving jinn and men who exit hellfire. Do they enter lowest levels of jannah as per some opinions or do they enter araf, the place between jannah and jahannum.

I'm confused whether the age of Ibn Abbas (May Allah be pleased on him) was 8 or 13 at time of the death of Muhammad (SAW). I've read a book which says, it is 8. But in different websites, it says, 13. In Wikipedia, they have failed to provide any references to support "13". However, even if they give, I don't care. Their references are not always reliable. In other website, they have also failed to provide references to support "13". So plz answer with references from the books of the reliable and renowned scholars so that they can be cited as reference or from such type website for example: Islamqa. I mean, I want a reliable references. Not from any website. That's why, I would be thankful if anyone give references from the books of scholars.

Assalamualikum, Can I name my daughter "Syedzadi"? It means "Daughter of Syed" Please answer.

First of all: what I mean here by “Jew” is nationality/race and not religion. The question of whether Jesus was a Jew therefore means whether Jesus was an Israeli, i.e. a descendant of Jacob/Israel. The focus here is not on whether Jesus was a Jew from a religious point of view, i.e. whether he was a follower of Judaism. Was Jesus a Jew at all? He had no Jewish father, he is not from Jewish sperm. According to the Bible, a child inherits the nationality from the father. Two examples: 1. The wife of Joseph was a Gentile (Egyptian), and with her he made two children, Ephraim and Manasseh. Although their mother was a Gentile, they are still called Israelis because their father was an Israeli. They inherited their father's nationality. 2. Moses allowed the men of Israel to take Gentile women, but he didn't allow them to take Gentile men for Israeli women. Since Jesus did not come out of Jewish sperm, he can't be a Jew by nationality. It's wrong to say that Jesus was a "half-Jew" because his mother was a Jew. In the Bible, there is no such thing like "half". You are what your father is. If your father is Italian and your mother is Spanish, then you are Italian. You are not half-italian and half-spanish. You are what your father is because out of his sperm you came. However, if someone wants to claim that the nationality goes from mother to child, then he must agree that Ephraim and Manasseh were not Israelis but Egyptians since their mother was Egyptian. He must also agree that Obed was not an Israeli but a Moabite since his mother Ruth was a Moabite. If he does not agree, then his position is hypocritical. I have opened this topic in other communities but they have all been closed. I am opening this topic here now because Jesus also plays a major role in Islam and the question of his nationality is certainly not an unimportant issue for Muslims. Since Jesus has no human father, he cannot biologically belong to any nationality. What does this mean now?

> Hadith "وعن أبي أمامة رضي الله عنه أن رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم > قال‏:‏ ‏"‏فضل العالم على العابد كفضلي على أدناكم‏"‏ ثم قال رسول الله > صلى الله عليه وسلم ‏:‏ ‏"‏إن الله وملائكته وأهل السماوات والأرض حتى > النملة في جحرها وحتى الحوت ليصلون على معلمي الناس الخير‏"‏ ‏(‏‏(‏رواه > الترمذي وقال‏:‏ حديث حسن‏.‏ ‏)‏‏)‏‏.‏" Abu Umamah (May Allah be > pleased with him) reported: The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) said, "The > superiority of the learned over the devout worshipper is like my > superiority over the most inferior amongst you (in good deeds)." He > went on to say, "Allah, His angels, the dwellers of the heaven and the > earth, and even the ant in its hole and the fish (in water) supplicate > in favour of those who teach people knowledge." > > [At-Tirmidhi 2685]. > > > > Riyad as-Salihin, 1387 In the end of the Hadith "**those who teach people knowledge**" is it referring to anyone who teaches people knowledge or A scholar from the context before. If it is referring to the scholar then who are the scholars according to this Hadith? Is it just someone who has knowledge about Deen or someone who is like a formal scholar as we understand today?

It is narrated in Ibn Ishaq 992: > اغزوا جميعا في سبيل الله، فقاتلوا من كفر بالله > >“fight everyone in the way of allah and kill those who disbelieve in allah“ I know Ibn Ishaq is generally a weak source, however I'd like to know just how weak this is. Does it reach the level of fabrication for example? Likewise, what is the context of the situation? If this is a general narration applicable for everyone, does it not contradict the fact we are only supposed to kill non-combatants and ask for Jizya beforehand?

The main focus for the position currently being offered is development and maintenance of our Customer Relationship Management (CRM) product. The CRM product forms the backbone for our online gaming customers. The CRM links together player account information, transactions (deposits/withdrawals), customer support, and APIs with 3rd party game providers. I am a software developer and I have been offered the following position in an online betting platform The high-level task list of the CRM team is to: develop new modules for our CRM product maintain and debug modules in the CRM product integrate with 3rd party APIs complete other C++ coding projects outside the CRM base as needed. The majority of EAS products are database-driven. Working knowledge of SQL querying and basic DB schema is a must: all applicants must know how to connect to, query, and fetch/process results from a database as well as update records in order to be eligible for this position. I thought since I'm not directly involved with the betting platform itself this might be okay, but since I'm not sure, I wanted to ask if it is halal or not?

Looking for an explanation for these 2 Sunni Hadiths in conjuction. - [ Whoever makes the Prophet's (PBUH) daughter mad makes him (PBUH) mad](https://sunnah.com/bukhari:3714) - [Abu Bakr made Fatima (SA) mad at Fadak](https://sunnah.com/bukhari:4240) Why does it not logically follow that Abu Bakr made the Prophet (PBUH) mad?

Al-salam alaikum warahmtullahi wabarakatuhu. As we all know, by consensus shaving the beard is Haram except for a small opinion within the Maliki madhab I think? My question is; is it permissible for one to shave his beard in case of coercion in the form of parents threatening to divorce over it (it is silly yes but there are some mentally unstable people like that) and/or the threat of being kicked out of those house into streets (when the threat is real, ie: when someone has already been kicked out for a short while for the reason of not shaving their beard.) JazakAllah khairan.

Assalamu alaikum. I have this problem - my family always celebrates New Year by gathering at my grandparents' house around the table and setting off fireworks. However, I've reached a dead end thinking about whether celebrating the New Year is haram. In the internet, some people write that it is, while others say it isn't. On the one hand, it's true that the New Year was established on January 1st by Julius Caesar in honor of some pagan god, and New Year is mainly celebrated by non-Muslims, so, in a way, one could say that by celebrating the New Year, you are imitating the disbelievers. But on the other hand, the modern New Year is a secular holiday, and its celebration has become a tradition among a huge number of Muslims, and it might be said that we celebrate it simply because of the start of a new year, we gather with family, talk, and don't do anything forbidden. P.S. I know definetely that celebration of Christmas is haram because by celebrating it, you are indirectly saying that Allah was born on December 25. But it's not a problem for me, because almost no one in my region celebrates Christmas, unlike the New Year...

Here it says that in the Sokoto Caliphate: > “The classical vizierate is based on some verses from the Quran. > > يَفْقَهُوا۟ قَوْلِى وَٱجْعَل لِّى وَزِيرًۭا مِّنْ أَهْلِى هَـٰرُونَ ‎أَخِى ٱشْدُدْ بِهِۦٓ أَزْرِى وَأَشْرِكْهُ فِىٓ أَمْرِى‎ —Quran > > So people may understand my speech, and grant me > a helper from my family, Aaron, my brother. Strengthen me through him, > and let him share my task >"The vizierate in Sokoto was based on the > Abbasid Caliphate version of the position. Shaikh Uthman dan Fodio's > book, Bayan wujab al-hijra, justifies the existence of the position in > the caliphate: The first pillar [of a kingdom] is an upright wazir > (vizier) over the wilaya who wakens [the king] if he sleeps and gives > him sight if he cannot see and reminds him if he is heedless. The > greatest catastrophe which could befall the wilaya and its subjects is > to be deprived of good wazirs and helpers. One of the requirements of > a wazir is that he should truly be benevolent and kind-hearted towards > the people.” Would such a ruler with such power & responsibilities wake themselves up on time or was this really a part of the Islamic job and state function of the Islamic Vizier!?

Who was the first non-primary Arabaphone Qadi قاضي and how was his Arabic language proficiency qualified? What's the oldest extant Arabic language proficiency exam used for the purposes of executing Islamic law?

I heard Aisha (r.a) was engaged before she married Prophet Muhammad (s.a.w). Can you provide details about this? Are they authentic?

Please provide a reference such as books, tafir's or hadith's etc. that Abu Bakr had previously promised to marry Aisha to Mut'im's son Jubayr.

Someone claimed that Abu Abdullah al-Halimi considered it obligatory (wājib) for the master to obtain the slave girl’s consent before having intercourse with her. According to him, it is compulsory upon the master to refrain from touching her without her permission. How true is his claim? Actually, I do not understand Arabic, so it is not possible for me to know whether their translations are correct or wrong. Imam Abu Abdullah al-Halimi (d. 403 AH) said: >وإن اشترى جارية فكرهت أن يمسها أو يضاجعها، فلا يمسها ولا يضاجعها ولا يطأها إلا بإذنها > > If someone buys a slave girl, and she dislikes that he touches or has intimacy with her, then that he should not touch her or have intimacy with her or have intercourse with her without her permission. > >[ Minhāj fīsh-Shu‘abul Īmān, Halimi 3/267 ](https://shamela.ws/book/18567/1353)

Sahih Al-Bukhari 3508: The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "If somebody claims to be the son of any other than his real father knowingly, he but disbelieves in Allah, and if somebody claims to belong to some folk to whom he does not belong, let such a person take his place in the (Hell) Fire." My question is about second part of hadith.How you define folk or tribe? Here in indo-pak , caste system exists which is not found in Arabia. And most of people in Pakistan belonging to low caste convetred to some higher caste for social superiority as low caste are still humiliated a lot. Here caste are associated with their professions. Like merchants are called Sheikh, farmers are Arain, hair dresser are Malik, clothes maker Ansari, and hence Butt, Rajpoot , Jutt and etc.These are just few examples . But they all are convetred to Islam from Hinduism . And it's all not sure for many of people that so called superior caste people have been converted from low caste some 50 , 60 or 100 years ago from their ancestors. Now my question is simple, if anyone change its caste, does second part of a above Hadiths has any resemblance to this situation. As in Hadiths, word "qoum" is used which means folk , nationalism or tribe. But no any meaning of caste or profession make sense. My English is much poor. So kindly understand my point of view and answer me in simple wiring.

To my understanding when it comes to allahs attributes, they can be shared attributes with humans e.g allah exists, so do we. But because there is nothing like allah, the meaning of the attributes are shared but the actual reality of allahs existence and our one is completely different. With existence, we can say that allah exists and we exist, theres a similarity in meaning but the actual reality of allahs existence and our existence is different, so my question is that with allahs hand we know the reality of allahs hand, and our hand is completely different (just like existence), but what is the similarity in meaning between allahs hands and our hands? (qadr mushtarak) if my question is hard to understand just say i will try and simplify, let me know if i have made blunders. p.s i know some people have difference of opinions regarding allahs attributes so my question is specifically for people who believe in all of allahs attributes as i believe that position is correct.