I've heard that the nation of Yajuj and Majuj (Gog and Magog) is in the ratio 999:1 to humans, meaning there are 999 of them for every human. There are approximately 7.8 billion humans on the earth today. This would mean there are approximately 7792.2 billion of the Yajuj and Majuj, which is a number beyond human comprehension. It seems impossible for such a large group to remain hidden and undiscovered for so long. So are the Yajuj and Majuj really on earth or are they in a completely different place? If they are on earth, how is this possible?

السَّلاَمُ عَلَيْكُمْ وَرَحْمَةُ اللهِ وَبَرَكَاتُهُ > I'm in love with a man since the last two years. We're **18 and 19** > currently. Is it possible for us to get nikahfied after a few months > in order to not get sins because we talk to each other? We just want > to refrain from getting more sins. We want to get **nikahfied > secretly** and have a proper nikah in the presence of our parents > and relatives after we complete my studies. Meaning after 4 to 6 > years. We don't really plan to indulge in sexual activities. We have a > few **witness available** already. Kindly advice in accordance with **Hanafi** Fiqh, it will help us to arrive at a final decision.

There are several versions of the story, with elements that contradict each other. All accounts of Bahira and his meeting with Muhammad have been deemed fictitious by modern historians as well as by some medieval Muslim scholars, such as al-Dhahabi.

Did Fuqaha ever declared a country/kingdom Dar Al Harb and its people as Harbi for certain Muslims but not for all? **For example:** > Israel is Dar Al Harb & Yahood Is Harbi for Palestinians and Arab > neighbors but not for All Muslims around the World. OR Is it Binding Upon > All the Muslims to consider them Harbi and that place as Dar Al-Harb!!! Is this view ever adopted in the Jurisprudence ever or if a country/kingdom is called Dar Al Harb and its people as Harbi. It is generally binding upon Muslims to consider that place as Dar Al Harb and its Kuffar as Harbi???

This is something that confuses me a little bit. I was a Muslim because I was born as a Muslim (my parents are Muslims). After I became an adult, I began to question about life, because the only thing I knew about Islam is Allah (swt), prophet Mohamed (saws), praying, haram/halal and paradise and hell. After some time of research, I can say I'm a real Muslim now. I love Allah and because of the love for him I love to pray for Him. I also love our prophet Mohamed (saws), because he's gentle, careful, honest, fair, a pure man who cares for the people and wanted the best for us. I'm also aware that I have to fear for Allah's punishment. It's like telling your son not to put his fingers in the power socket. But if he does, the disobedience can be painful. But to make things clear, I became a Muslim in the first place because I was searching for my creator, to give my life a meaning and not because I was afraid of Allah! So why do a lot of sheikhs say we have to fear and cry for Allah for His punishments. Very little do they talk about the love for Allah. They rather talk about fear for Allah than love for Allah. If I wasn't a Muslim and I was searching for the truth I'd never be a Muslim if it was based on the sayings of sheiks who often talk about doom scenario. So, should one be a Muslim because of the love for Allah or the fear of Allah?

Assalamu alaikum brother.If I shake hand with a hindu in such a time when I can understand his amulet may be touched with my hand, will it considered as shirk? I will not make him crony.

Is it true that Ibn Taymiyyah believed in the Satanic verses. I need verification on this quote which is alleged to be from him: > The principle established by the agreement of the Community is that > the Prophets (God’s Peace be upon them) are Protected in that which > they convey from God (Glory be to Him) and in imparting his Messages. > And it is by this firmly established Protection of the Prophets that > the purpose of Prophethood and Messengership is obtained. A Prophet is > someone who conveys communications from God and a Messenger is someone > sent by God with a mission; and while every Messenger is a Prophet not > every Prophet is a Messenger. Protection in regard to that which they > impart from God is firmly established and the Muslims are agreed that > no error may come to lodge therein. But: Can something issue forth > which God then corrects, such that God removes that which Satan casts > and establishes His Signs clearly? There are two opinions in regard to > this and the Quran is in agreement with the one that has been > transmitted from the early Muslims. Those later Muslims who forbid > this position attack what has been transmitted about the Prophet > uttering the additional words, “Indeed, they are as high-flying cranes > And, indeed, their intercession is hoped for”, in Sirat al-Najm, > saying that the transmission of the accounts is not established as > reliable. Those of them who recognize that the transmission is > reliable say: “Satan cast this into their hearing but the Prophet > (God’s Peace and Preservation be upon him) did not utter it”; but the > question remains unresolved in this interpretation too, so they also > say in regard to God’s words, “‘illa idha tamanna alqa ‘l-shaytainu fi > umniyyati-hi”, that this refers to inner thoughts. Those who affirm > what has been transmitted from the early Muslims, say: This has been > reliably transmitted and it is not possible to discredit it, and the > Quran furnishes evidence for it by saying: “We have not sent before > you a Prophet or a Messenger but that when he recited/desired, Satan > cast something into his recitation, but God annuls that which Satan > casts and then establishes His Signs [ayat] clearly – and God is All- > Knowing, All-Wise – to make what Satan casts a trial for those in > whose hearts is sickness and those whose hearts are hardened- for > indeed the wrong-doers are in far dissension – and to teach those who > have been endowed with knowledge that this is the Truth from your > Lord, that they believe in it and humble their hearts to Him, for God > guides those who believe to a straight path”. They say: The reports in > explanation of this verse in the books of Tafsir and hadith are > well-known and reliable and the Quran is in agreement with these > reports.For God’s abrogation of what Satan casts and His establishing > His Signs is precisely so as to remove what has fallen into His ayat > and to distinguish Truth from Falsehood so that His diyat are not > confused with anything else; while the making of that which Satan cast > as a trial for those in whose hearts there is sickness and for those > whose hearts are hardened” can only happen if what was cast was > something external which the people heard and not something internal > to the soul. The trial that results from this is the kind of trial > that arises from the second category of abrogation and this category > of abrogation is even stronger proof of the Veracity of the Messenger > (God’s Peace and Pre- servation be upon him ) and of how far removed > he is from following false desire than is the other category of > abrogation. For, surely, if he enjoined that something be done and > then enjoined something else that contradicted it, both commands being > from God, and is considered as veracious in that; then when he said of > his own volition that the second and abrogating command was from God > and that the thing that was being removed and abrogated by God was not > from God, this is an even greater proof of his purposing Veracity and > of his speaking the Truth. This is similar to what ‘A’ishah (may God > be pleased with her) said: “If the prophet had wanted to conceal any > part of the Revelation, he would have concealed this verse: “And you > concealed in yourself that which God was bringing to light and you > feared the people when God is more to be feared”. Do you not think the > person who seeks his own aggrandizement through falsehood would want > to back up everything he says, even if it is wrong? **So the Prophet’s** > **proclaiming that God had established his ayat and removed that which** > **Satan cast is a yet greater proof of his striving for Veracity and his** > **innocence from lying.** It is this that achieves the purpose of > Messenger ship for indeed he is the Truthful, the Veracious, which is > why calling him a liar is, without doubt, sheer Unbelief. > > Ibn Taymiyyah and the Satanic Verses p.75

I know the major zina is penetration into the women’s private part. It’s also clear that getting pleasure before marriage by any means is not allowed. In my case if I was to was to receive oral pleasure, would it be considered minor or major zina? At the same time is getting a handjob major or minor zina. Because it counts just as touching?

I believe Allah loves his beings more than their mothers and at the same time I believe he is Al-Adl( the just). I want to know why he not guide the people by putting them in situation where they can learn about Allah. Why he judges us when he doesn't guide us when we were doing wrong. Please I need answer.

Did The scholars of Ahl Sunnah Wal Jammah consider Ibadi's even kaffir or they differed over it?

I'm a Jewish follower of Jesus, and was recently surprised to see Linda Sarsour, the Muslim women's leader in the US, tweeting about Jesus' appearance in the Quran: Ignoring for a moment the ahistorical anachronism of Jesus being Palestinian, **are there passages in the Quran about Jesus' appearance**? Some quick searching around the web shows some possible references in hadith traditions, but I haven't found anything in the Quran itself.

I recently came across a sermon where the narrator recommends to recite > YA SHAAFI YA KAFI YA BAQI ( The Healer, Self-sufficient, The > Everlasting) for General Sickness, Deadly Diseases, Fevers, Burns or Evil Eye. Is there any reference to this from the sunnah? How authentic is this practice?

I've come across the claim that the first mushafs (suhuf?) did not include vowel marks and sometimes did not even consistently use other diacritical marks to distinguish consonants. An example of a page of a very early mushaf that lacks vowel marks is the [Sana'a manuscript](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sana 'a_manuscript). This leads to the questions: - When were consistent vowel marks and other diacritical marks added, according to Islamic lore? (Asking for historical evidence would be a better fit on [History](https://history.stackexchange.com/) , but if any is available, it will be interesting here as well.) - If we leave out all vowel marks from the current canonical text, are there passages that become ambiguous? As an example, I've heard the claim that at the beginning of surah [Rum](https://quran.com/30/) , one of the verses could then be read as either "the Romans will defeat" or "the Romans will be defeated". - Does early Islamic scholarship discuss these issues?

Quran commands us to تغتسلوا (wash yourself). If we don't consider Hadith (and sects), what can we learn only from the Quran?

What conditions as per Fuqaha make an act eligible to be called Mubah? Example: If a scholar says Nikah is Mubah, how did he arrive at this conclusion? **Note: I have given an assumed example not real example**

There is an authentic hadith in bukhari about the punishment of backbiting. People you have wronged take your good deeds or you take their bad ones. But in the Holy Quran Allah(s.w.t) says that "None can take the burdens of others". My question is how do we reconcile this hadith and the Quran, and is the sin of backbiting an exception of the rizling in the Quran? Jazakallah

Salaamu Alaikum,when one masturbates but doesn't release sperm,then he falls asleep and then in the process he released,and he immediately noticed ,does this invalidate his fast

My friend is a very religious person, he said that one should not have any relationship with other women after marriage even if it is just friendship? Is this true?

I know it sounds like a stupid question but we all know that we’re supposed to say bismillah before eating anything but let’s say that you say bismillah before you eat a meal and then you get up and we’re gone for like 5 minutes and then you come back to the food should we say bismillah again or just eat the food since you already said it. The same goes for drinking. Do I say bismillah to drink after I eat or just drink? Then say alhamduillah after drinking and eating ?

Is it Halal or Haram to develop an app that translates or shows the meaning of acronyms across military books? Especially those in the USA with more than 30k words? This app will be used by military users or members worldwide if not in the USA.. it will make it easier to understand acronyms and terms.