Is it true that Ibn Taymiyyah believed in the Satanic verses. I need verification on this quote which is alleged to be from him: > The principle established by the agreement of the Community is that > the Prophets (God’s Peace be upon them) are Protected in that which > they convey from God (Glory be to Him) and in imparting his Messages. > And it is by this firmly established Protection of the Prophets that > the purpose of Prophethood and Messengership is obtained. A Prophet is > someone who conveys communications from God and a Messenger is someone > sent by God with a mission; and while every Messenger is a Prophet not > every Prophet is a Messenger. Protection in regard to that which they > impart from God is firmly established and the Muslims are agreed that > no error may come to lodge therein. But: Can something issue forth > which God then corrects, such that God removes that which Satan casts > and establishes His Signs clearly? There are two opinions in regard to > this and the Quran is in agreement with the one that has been > transmitted from the early Muslims. Those later Muslims who forbid > this position attack what has been transmitted about the Prophet > uttering the additional words, “Indeed, they are as high-flying cranes > And, indeed, their intercession is hoped for”, in Sirat al-Najm, > saying that the transmission of the accounts is not established as > reliable. Those of them who recognize that the transmission is > reliable say: “Satan cast this into their hearing but the Prophet > (God’s Peace and Preservation be upon him) did not utter it”; but the > question remains unresolved in this interpretation too, so they also > say in regard to God’s words, “‘illa idha tamanna alqa ‘l-shaytainu fi > umniyyati-hi”, that this refers to inner thoughts. Those who affirm > what has been transmitted from the early Muslims, say: This has been > reliably transmitted and it is not possible to discredit it, and the > Quran furnishes evidence for it by saying: “We have not sent before > you a Prophet or a Messenger but that when he recited/desired, Satan > cast something into his recitation, but God annuls that which Satan > casts and then establishes His Signs [ayat] clearly – and God is All- > Knowing, All-Wise – to make what Satan casts a trial for those in > whose hearts is sickness and those whose hearts are hardened- for > indeed the wrong-doers are in far dissension – and to teach those who > have been endowed with knowledge that this is the Truth from your > Lord, that they believe in it and humble their hearts to Him, for God > guides those who believe to a straight path”. They say: The reports in > explanation of this verse in the books of Tafsir and hadith are > well-known and reliable and the Quran is in agreement with these > reports.For God’s abrogation of what Satan casts and His establishing > His Signs is precisely so as to remove what has fallen into His ayat > and to distinguish Truth from Falsehood so that His diyat are not > confused with anything else; while the making of that which Satan cast > as a trial for those in whose hearts there is sickness and for those > whose hearts are hardened” can only happen if what was cast was > something external which the people heard and not something internal > to the soul. The trial that results from this is the kind of trial > that arises from the second category of abrogation and this category > of abrogation is even stronger proof of the Veracity of the Messenger > (God’s Peace and Pre- servation be upon him ) and of how far removed > he is from following false desire than is the other category of > abrogation. For, surely, if he enjoined that something be done and > then enjoined something else that contradicted it, both commands being > from God, and is considered as veracious in that; then when he said of > his own volition that the second and abrogating command was from God > and that the thing that was being removed and abrogated by God was not > from God, this is an even greater proof of his purposing Veracity and > of his speaking the Truth. This is similar to what ‘A’ishah (may God > be pleased with her) said: “If the prophet had wanted to conceal any > part of the Revelation, he would have concealed this verse: “And you > concealed in yourself that which God was bringing to light and you > feared the people when God is more to be feared”. Do you not think the > person who seeks his own aggrandizement through falsehood would want > to back up everything he says, even if it is wrong? **So the Prophet’s** > **proclaiming that God had established his ayat and removed that which** > **Satan cast is a yet greater proof of his striving for Veracity and his** > **innocence from lying.** It is this that achieves the purpose of > Messenger ship for indeed he is the Truthful, the Veracious, which is > why calling him a liar is, without doubt, sheer Unbelief. > > Ibn Taymiyyah and the Satanic Verses p.75

I came across a video\[1] of the burning of a Jordanian pilot by ISIS, and at the end of it, it quotes the statement: " فإن كان في التمثيل الشائع لهم دعاء إلى الإيمان وحرز لهم عن العدوان؛ فإنه هنا من إقامة الحدود والجهاد المشروع " attributed to Imam Ibn Taymiyyah, as if to validate their actions. (I note that other sources indicate that 'الشائع' there, is a substitute for an original word 'السائغ') Might anyone be able to further elaborate on the phrase above: its source(s) and meaning(s)? --- Note: 1. Link to reddit post containing the NSFW vid . Shared here in case anyone needs to verify the existence of the quoted statement.

Regarding the Hadith : > Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) said: "I have been commanded to fight against the people until they testify that none has the right to be worshipped but Allah and that Muhammad is Allah's Messenger (ﷺ), and offer the prayers perfectly and give the obligatory charity, so if they perform that, then they save their lives and property from me except for Islamic laws and then their reckoning will be done by Allah."
**[ [Bukhari](https://sunnah.com/bukhari:25) ]** Ibn Taymiyyah commented on this Hadith > The meaning of this hadith is to fight those who are waging war whom God has called us to fight, and it does not mean to fight those who have made peace agreements with whom Allah has commanded us to fulfill the agreements. And the Prophet, before the revelation of Surat al-Tawba would uphold agreements with whoever made agreements with him from the kuffar without imposing jizya. So when Allah revealed Surat al-Tawba and commanded the Prophet to renege the indefinite agreements, he could no longer make agreements as he used to do. Rather he was obligated to fight jihad against everyone , as Allah says in the verse 9:5
**[ Majmu Fatawa ]** So it appears to me Ibn taymiyya interprets the hadith to refer to Self defense, but he interprets 9:5 (which is pretty much saying the same thing as the hadith) to command jihad against everyone Thats very contradictory Just to make sure I ask you guys i am not mis interpreting ibn taymiyya’s view on the hadith right?