I’ve come across statements by some contemporary scholars and educators suggesting that pursuing mathematics—particularly with the intention of understanding the order of creation or serving humanity—can be considered a form of *‘ibadah* (worship) in Islam. This idea resonates with how classical Muslim civilizations valued mathematics, astronomy, and logic. Scholars like Al-Khwarizmi, Al-Biruni, and Ibn Sina made substantial mathematical contributions while being deeply religious. *My question:* *Is there a basis in **Qur’an**, **Hadith**, or **classical Islamic scholarship** that explicitly or implicitly supports the view that studying mathematics (or science more broadly) can be an act of worship? And are there examples from Islamic history where mathematical inquiry was treated as a spiritual or religious endeavor?* *What I’ve considered:* *I’ve looked into Qur’anic verses such as *“Indeed, in the creation of the heavens and the earth…”* (3:190) and some writings of Al-Ghazali, but I’d appreciate more precise scholarly references.*

**Jeremy England's theory on the origin of life is founded in “dissipation-driven adaptation of matter,” in which all forms of matter, living and nonliving, adapt to produce the maximum amount of energy.** How shall we prove that this does not mean that Allah does not exist?

I have read some of the answers to this topic on this platform, but none mentioned its relevance to the science and rulings of the Quran, Hadith, and Sharia. For example, there are multiple opinions on intersex people about which we know they are born that way, and they have some conditions to be followed, but those are based on the assumption that sexuality is only associated with appearance and genitals. We need separate rulings or guidance on this issue, some have concluded that it is okay to be homosexual until and unless you are not involved in it. But it doesn't make sense, it is not comparable to any disease, like someone is born without a leg, and it's a test for him and other people how they treat him, etc. It is similar to the intersex condition. I feel there is some gap in the explanation. I know it is an emerging field of science but there are many conclusions relating Homosexuality to the genetic sequence of humans. I know there is a drawback in that study that it is being conducted on adults and not embryos to understand whether it is purely inherited or culturally influenced, but Genetic sequence can't be altered by any environmental factors except Carcinogens, etc. Most of them are not exposed and mutations from those are random as compared to the results of the relation of homosexuality with genetics and inheritance. I would appreciate logical answers that I can understand and explain to my colleagues as I am a student working in STEM.

Muslims are not allowed to eat certain animals like pig, dog etc. but are allowed to eat cow, chicken, lamb etc. I don't understand the reason behind this refraining from eating some animals but are allowed to eat others. **If eating meat is the issue, Allah should have commanded us to remain vegetarians!** Is there any scientific explanation for not eating certain animals? Some say that pigs eat filthy things and the meat is not healthy for consumption. However, if the pig is reared in a clean environment, won't it make it a clean animal?

**Assalamu Alaikum**. I just wish to ask one of my doubts. I have been pondering so long to get an answer to my doubt. Searched a lot but still couldn't get a satisfactory answer. Due to lack of answers, i came to know that I started losing my faith. I wish to share it here. Please answer or respond anything if you got this. My question is regarding the verse from the Quran chapter 67 verse 5 where it says allah made the stars to be thrown at devils. > **'And We have certainly beautified the nearest heaven with lamps and have made them thrown at the devils and have prepared for them the punishment of the Blaze.'** ***[QURAN 67:5]*** well first, its not a scientific view. and its not something a person who has knowledge about astronomy accepts. well to my knowledge, i know that this universe has got a grand design. even skeptical scientists wonder how such a grand design happened. (it make them wonder if God really made it.) everything correctly at its place. there is proportionality throughout the universe. and we even came to know that gravitational waves exist. so if our star (sun) were to disappear one day it would disrupt the design and we wont exist (because gravity). in such a case how could stars be thrown at the devils? So i started to see scholarly interpretation of that verse. hence i came to know that most of the scholars said that word **(مَصَابِيحَ)** which literally meant lamp refers to shooting stars and not stars. the below are some of the links where scholars says that it refers to shooting stars http://www.islamweb.net/emainpage/index.php?page=showfatwa&Option=FatwaId&Id=324712 https://islamqa.info/en/243871 https://www.ahlalhdeeth.com/vbe/showthread.php?p=99813 https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/24290/what-is-the-meaning-of-bimashobih-in-surah-675 https://versebyversequranstudycircle.wordpress.com/2015/01/29/tafseer-surah-al-mulk-ayaat-1-5/ http://islamicnewblogaddress.blogspot.in/2016/12/interpretation-of-verse-stars-are.html if the above verse really refers to shooting stars. then its something which could be logically and scientifically accepted based on some points. -but if we were to look deeply on the meaning of the word **(مَصَابِيحَ)** by comparing with other verses we could come to the conclusion that it has to refer to stars and not shooting stars. below is the explanation why **(مَصَابِيحَ)** has to refer stars. > "15.Do you not consider how Allah has created seven heavens in layers 16.And made the moon therein a [reflected] light and made the sun a burning **lamp** ?" ***[Surah 71:15-16]*** > "And He completed them as seven heavens within two days and inspired in each heaven its command. And We adorned the nearest heaven with **lamps** and as protection. That is the determination of the Exalted in Might, the Knowing." ***[Surah 41:12]*** >"And constructed above you seven strong [heavens] And made [therein] a burning **lamp**" ***[Surah 78:12,13]*** in both verses 71:16 and 78:13 (which are mentioned above) the word **lamp** is translated for Arabic word **سِرَاجًا** ,while the word **lamp** from verse 41:12 is translated for Arabic word **مَصَابِيحَ** . So when we compare the ayaths we can see that all the three verses (mentioned above) starts by referring the seven heavens and then says about the stars created which are referred as **lamps**. so the **lamp** has to refer either *star or some type or stage of a star*. next lets compare the verses 41:12 and 67:5 >"And He completed them as seven heavens within two days and inspired in each heaven its command. And We adorned the nearest heaven with **lamps** and as protection. That is the determination of the Exalted in Might, the Knowing."[Surah 41:12] >"And We have certainly beautified the nearest heaven with **lamps** and have made them thrown at the devils and have prepared for them the punishment of the Blaze."[Surah 67-5] by comparing the above two verses we could understand that both verses mentioned *lamps as adornment and made as protection by throwing at devils* from verse 41:12 (given above) we came to know that the Arabic word **مَصَابِيحَ** referred some sort of a star.hence the Arabic word **مَصَابِيحَ** from verse 67:5 also has to refer some sort of a star. even when quran gives us a clear idea why it has to refer star, i couldn't understand how scholars could interpret it as shooting stars. scholars trying to interpret it as shooting star seems to me like they are just convincing people by lying. so how could stars be thrown at devils? i am not saying almighty cant make someone do it.we know that prophet Muhammad (saw) is said to have split the moon. but we know that its a miracle. but Allah gave order to angels to throw stars if devil comes. hence it becomes a property. there is difference between miracle and property. miracles never fits with the data but properties has to be logical with the data from our observable universe. i did heard an explanation from the website answeringchristianity.com that, it could be **pulsars** and the **radiations emitted from pulsars**. and those those radiations are referred to be thrown at the devils. but i felt even a mistake in that explanation, there is no preposition **'from'** in that verse. hence claiming radiation from pulsars seems to contradict, because the verse clearly says **"lamps thrown at devils"**. so my question is, is ***that a scientific error??*** i heard some people saying that, wait patiently till u get the answer. some day scientist would prove that verse. but i get irritated to hear such comments because. if thats the case, then i wonder christians are waiting for the day when scientists will prove the world that earth is really flat. waiting for your replies. * ** ** ** ** ** ** ** ** ** ** ** Note: sorry, the explanation which I mentioned above is wrong and is due to my lack of knowledge. But I wish not to remove it, so that people who may think the same way could get the point and understand the answers clearly.

Salam, Qur'an says that even the combined work force of humans and Jinns could not create something like Qur'an or Qur'an itself , let far go human alone. > Surely, if mankind and jinn were to get together to produce the like of this Qur'an, they will never be able to produce the like of it, howsoever they might help one another.[Al Israa 17: 88] >Oh people, if you doubt the heavenly origin of this Book which We have sent down to Our servant, the Prophet, produce one surah like it.” [Al Baqarah 2:23] Let the **number** of arabic letters (alphabets) in Qur'an be *X* (*X* maybe in the order of 10⁷ to 10⁹, or even more , but finite) . Let *S* denotes the set of all books having *X* letters where each letter is of Arabic language. Clearly, *X* is finite, *S* is a finite set and *S* also contains Qur'an. Obviously humans ***can*** command a computer ( or a supercomputer ) to write all the elements (books) of *S*, and certainly Qur'an would also be written among all the possible books ( in a finite time). So, how is it possible that humans could never write Qur'an given that Qur'an is having a finite length (of text) and just a particular permutation of *X* letters which can be produced by a computer program in a finite time ? **NOTE**: One may argue that Allah will never let humans use a supercomputer to do this task or a supercomputer will freeze if commanded to do so due to order of Allah, etc. and hence the verse is correct that humans would never produce it. ***BUT*** I am asking about the capability of humans that they can create Qur'an or not by themselves and the apparent contradiction to Qur'an. I'm not asking that it would happen in our real life or not. Thanks !

I've been looking at the ages of the prophets and I could understand if they were exceptions who could live much longer than the normal person but yesterday I read this about Prophet Nuh: > [11:27] "But the chiefs of those who disbelieved from among his people said: We do not consider you but a mortal like ourselves, and we do not see any have followed you but those who are the meanest of us at first thought and we do not see in you any excellence over us; nay, we deem you liars." Which implies that his long lifespan was a norm back then for the general population and this is clearly scientifically impossible so I'm very confused at the moment and it's making me question the validity of the Qur'an.

I have read somewhere that at noon time when sun is exactly at up and making a right angle with earth some dangerous rays emit from earth that's why it is forbidden to pray at that time. But i could find any scientific logic behind that. Can any one explain in detail ?

It seems like you would create tidal waves, maybe even a tsunami, if you split the moon in half. So how can I explain the splitting of the moon in terms of scientific facts or history?

According to Quran 31:10 : > He has created the skies without the pillars that you may see, and > placed mountains on the earth, lest it shakes with you, and spread > over it all kinds of creatures. And We sent down water from the > heavens, and caused to grow in it every noble pair. The sky is just the color we see. It is not a structure, or a roof over our heads. So what is the Quran referring to when it mentions, "He has created the skies without the pillars"?

After numerous discoveries by mankind, the world now believes that we are on a planet which is in a solar system revolving around the Sun. Does Islam have any reference(s) to this? What is the concept of this?

Assalamualykum, Allah says in surat Fussilat: >*Say, "Do you indeed disbelieve in He who created the earth in two days and attribute to Him equals? That is the Lord of the worlds. And He placed on the earth firmly set mountains over its surface, and He blessed it and determined therein its [creatures'] sustenance in four days without distinction - for [the information] of those who ask. Then He directed Himself to the heaven while it was smoke and said to it and to the earth, "Come [into being], willingly or by compulsion." They said, "We have come willingly." And He completed them as seven heavens within two days and inspired in each heaven its command. And We adorned the nearest heaven with lamps and as protection. That is the determination of the Exalted in Might, the Knowing.* 41:9-12 Allah here says he created earth first, then created the rest of the universe ? We all know that that would not be true, as scientifically the universe is created first, afterwards are planets including earth, there are many celestial bodies created before earth. So can someone explain to me what Allah meant? May Allah give you hidaya.

This is the Hadith The part of the hadith I deem to be wrong is :- > Anas b. Malik reported that Umm Sulaim narrated it that she asked the Messenger of Allah about a woman who sees in a dream what a man sees (sexual dream). The Messenger of Allah (may peace be upon him) said: In case a woman sees that, she must take a bath. Umm Sulaim said: I was bashful on account of that and said: Does it happen? Upon this the Messenger of Allah said: Yes (it does happen), otherwise how can (a child) resemble its mother? Here the vaginal discharge has been compared with the semen, But there is a gulf of difference between them. To be specific, I've noted some points:- 1. The vaginal discharge of a women has no significant contributions in the production of a zygote. It doesn't contain any chromosomes or genes and no gamete. It's function is just to keep the vagina infection - free and to ease the process of intercourse. 2. The colour of the discharge is not normally yellow. It's normal colour ranges from transparent to milky- whitish. 3. The semen has the male gametes or sperms, but there are no such things as female gametes in the vaginal discharge. So isn't this hadith wrong ? Because here it's implied that the semen of a women is her vaginal discharge, which is utterly wrong. Forgive me if I made some mistakes, I'm a human after all. Assalamualaikum .

Can a Muslim prove to an atheist or an infidel that God actually exists? As far as I know most atheists will argue that since they can't hear, see or feel God then He doesn't exist.

I already know that pornography is haram and harmful. I just want someone to explain me its reason scientifically. Can anybody do that? What reactions looking at nude pictures do in a human body? I'm one hundred sure that there's a logical reason behind this. I need to know it.

How old is earth in Islam? Is it age of earth in Islam near ~5000 years old or Islam shares scientific point of view of earth age?

While much of religion is faith, are there any statements in the Koran we can point to that prove its authenticity? Using the Torah as an example, one of the things Jews point to is the fact that the Torah says there is only one animal that has split hooves but doesn't chew its cud (the pig). Only God can make that statement since nobody else could be sure enough, and if proven wrong, the religion would fall apart. What can we say about the Koran that accomplishes the same thing?

I know us Muslims claim that Islam is the true religion, however, if we were to show a non-Muslim proof of our belief, what proof would we be able to show them? I would appreciate quotes from Quran and Ahadith Thanks in advance

I asked this question a few minutes ago and someone said it is a duplicate to this but it is not. I want a modern proof!

1. As the title suggests, do Muslims believe that Islam as a religion is perfect? 2. Is the Quran a perfect religious text? 3. And were the actions of Prophet Muhammad perfect(PBUH) perfect as well? 4. Also, if that is the case, how exactly is perfection defined? Does wide misinterpretation count as imperfection? Or being impractical count as an imperfection? If at all, it is impractical or misinterpreted. Sorry, for clubbing so many questions but they are closely related.