I know that many questions have been asked about marrying spouses that are "believers," but who are not Muslims, and that the Qur'an does make it permissible as long as they are devout believers, etc. **However, I was wondering if a Mormon/LDS woman is considered a "believer."** Mormons do consider themselves Christians, and they are some of the most devout religious people I know. They don't drink alcohol (or even coffee or tea because of the addictive qualities of caffeine), don't have pre-marital sex (they actually follow it), they fast every month, they pay tithes/alms, pray frequently, make covenants with God, dress modestly, place a HUGE emphasis on the family, don't curse, don't watch R-rated movies, read from the scriptures morning and night, constantly serve their communities, etc. She is full of light, hope, faith, purity, integrity, happiness, etc. I found that Mormons had many similarities with Islam, actually. But I wasn't sure if they are considered "believers" by our standards because they don't accept the traditional Christian "Trinity" since they believe God and Christ are separate individuals... so I wasn't sure if that makes them idolaters. I love this woman a lot and she loves me a lot as well. We are both very respectful of each other's religions, and know that we support each other in staying true to our respective faiths. Also, I know that she will help me raise up a righteous family with wholesome and Godly values.

Allah created humans to worship him. So, why are there other religions with different gods present today ? And some religions are made up by humans, if so why did Allah let them to do it? And should the people choose their religion intellectually based upon the various religious texts? If yes, wouldn’t it mean that he is testing the intelligence of his own creation ( I mean is he doubtful in our intelligence ) ?

I hope if someone can prove Islam to me (and to anyone who reads this) in a way that is based on facts, way that applies to human logic and can't be denied. It is well-known that most religious people are having a happy life, and I wish to have one too, but which religion is the most logical? or is Islam the absolute truth?

According to Dr Zakir Naik, Allah is mentioned in Hindu scriptures: > "Allah" in Rigveda Book 2 Hymn I verse II Even in the Rigveda which is the most sacred scripture of the Hindus, one of the attributes given to God Almighty in Book no 2 Hymn no I verse II, is ‘Ila’ which if pronounced properly is the same as Allah. > Allo Upanishad: Amongst the various Upanishads one of the Upanishad is named as ‘Allo’ Upanishad in which God is referred to as "Allah" several times. [***Source***](http://www.islam101.com/tauheed/Aior.htm) > According to Bhavishya Purana in the Prati Sarag Parv III Khand 3 Adhay 3 Shloka 5 to 8. "A malecha (belonging to a foreign country and speaking a foreign language) spiritual teacher will appear with his companions. His name will be Mohammad. Raja (Bhoj) after giving this Maha Dev Arab (of angelic disposition) a bath in the Panchgavya and the Ganga water (i.e. purifying him of all sins) offered him the present of his sincere devotion and showing him all reverence said, "I make obeisance to thee. O ye! The pride of mankind, the dweller in Arabia, Ye have collected a great force to kill the Devil and you yourself have been protected from the malecha opponents." The Prophecy clearly states: - The name of the Prophet as Mohammad. - He will belong to Arabia. The Sanskrit word Marusthal means a sandy track of land or a desert. - Special mention is made of the companions of the Prophet, i.e. the Sahabas. No other Prophet had as many companions as Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). - He is referred as the pride of mankind (Parbatis nath). The Glorious Qur’an reconfirms this - "And thou (standest) on an exalted standard of character" [Al-Qur'an 68:4]| - "Ye have indeed in the Messenger of Allah, a beautiful pattern (of conduct)". [Al-Qur'an 33:21] - He will kill the devil, i.e. abolish idol worship and all sorts of vices. - The Prophet will be given protection against his enemy. - Some people may argue that ‘Raja’ Bhoj mentioned in the prophecy lived in the 11th century C.E. 500 years after the advent of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) and was the descendant in the 10th generation of Raja Shalivahan. These people fail to realise that there was not only one Raja of the name Bhoj. The Egyptian Monarchs were called as Pharaoh and the Roman Kings were known as Caesar, similarly the Indian Rajas were given the title of Bhoj. There were several Raja Bhoj who came before the one in 11th Century C.E. - The Prophet did not physically take a bath in the Panchgavya and the water of Ganges. Since the water of Ganges is considered holy, taking bath in the Ganges is an idiom, which means washing away sins or immunity from all sorts of sins. Here the prophecy implies that Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was sinless, i.e. Maasoom. [***Source***](http://www.islam101.com/religions/hinduism/Mhs.htm) The above gives evidence of Allah and Muhammad. **Question:** Is it possible that Hinduism was founded by a Prophet of Allah but has been changed into polytheism?

It’s well known in the time of the Prophet(ﷺ), Zoroastrians made up the Majority of Bahrain which is Morden day eastern Arabia. We have Hadiths of the Prophet ordering the expulsion of Jews and Christians and Polytheists. It has been narrated by 'Umar b. al-Khattib that he heard the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) say: I will expel the Jews and Christians from the Arabian Peninsula and will not leave any but Muslim. The Prophet (ﷺ) on his death-bed, gave three orders saying, "Expel the pagans from the Arabian Peninsula” But with the Magians/Zoroatrians there are no such Hadiths expect to the contrary. We have Hadiths where the Prophet collects Jizya from Bahrain and they stay there until Umar and he lets them stay and pay Jizya. Narrated `Amr bin Dinar: I was sitting with Jabir bin Zaid and Amr bin Aus, and Bjalla was narrating to them in 70 A.H. the year when Musab bin Az-Zubair was the leader of the pilgrims of Basra. We were sitting at the steps of Zamzam well and Bajala said, "I was the clerk of Juz bin Muawiya, Al-Ahnaf's paternal uncle. A letter came from Umar bin Al-Khattab one year before his death; and it was read:-- "Cancel every marriage contracted among the Magians between relatives of close kinship (marriages that are regarded illegal in Islam: a relative of this sort being called Dhu-Mahram.)" Umar did not take the Jizya from the Magian infidels till Abdur-Rahman bin Auf testified that Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) had taken the Jizya from the Magians of Hajar. So how do the scholars explain this? Are Magians the only ones among the religions allowed to reside in Arabia?

Considering that Trinitarianism kind of violates the idea of not associating God with anything/anyone

I've seen several groups "identified" with them from the Mandeans to the Hermeticist but as mentioned above I'm distrustful of Wikipedia and the Internet at large.

As I understand, the status of Dhimmi can be enjoyed by any non-Muslim religion as far it has a pact or treaty with the Islamic government were it lives and recognizes the authority (submits if you will) by among other things paying Jizya. But as I have notice most historical examples were this happened refer to pre-existing religions such as Judaism, Christianity, Buddhism and Hinduism. Thus I wonder, to post-Islam religions can also be included on this deal? Cases like Sikhism, Bahaism, Mormonism, Rastafarianism, Wicca, Asatru and neo-Paganism in general, etc.? Or there will be something precluding such deals and/or against accepting Jizya from such movements as they came after the founding of Islam?

Below are two translations of Qur'an 5:69 from IslamAwakened : > Indeed, those who have believed [in Prophet Muhammad] and **those [before Him] who were Jews or Sabeans or Christians** - those [among them] who believed in Allah and the Last Day and did righteousness - no fear will there be concerning them, nor will they grieve.
> Qur'an 5:69; Sahih International > > Rest assured that the believers (Muslims), **the Jews, the Sabians and the Christians** - whoever believes in Allah and the Last Day and does righteous deeds - will have nothing to fear or to regret.
> Qur'an 5:69; Farook Malik The Sahih International translation applies only to believers prior to the Prophet Muhammad. The Farook Malik translation applies to Jews, Sabians and Christians in general. I'm not sure which of these is accurate. **Question**: Do modern-day Jews, Sabians and Christians have "nothing to fear or to regret" (Qur'an 5:69)?

This is something that happened in India. They demolished temples and idols of Hindus (1)in their own kingdoms and (2)in the Hindu kingdoms they were at war with. Does either of the above cases have scriptural justification in Islam? Does Islam encourage Muslims and/or Muslim rulers to destroy idols and places of worship of other religions? Also, in the above case, are these Muslim rulers considered to be committing Jihad(Holy War)? Note:The more specific verses are about breaking idols, the better.

Certain websites claim that in a Hadith it is mentioned the following: > Prophet Muhammad declared, "There was a prophet of God in India who is dark in color and his name was Kahan." (History of Hamadan Dailmi Chapter Al-Kaaf) Looking at the above verse, it is highly likely that this is referring to Lord Krishna who is need called ''Kahan'' and is dark-complexioned. The Quran does mention that there have been 1,24,000 prophets send by Allah but there are also high chances of this Hadith being interpolated just like many Puranas are in Hinduism (especially the Bhavishya Purana which seems to mention Prophet Muhammad and many Biblical characters). So is the above Hadith a ''sahih'' Hadith or is it also interpolated like the Bhavishya Purana in Hinduism?

Are non Muslims allowed to build, repair or worship in places such as Churches, Temples and Synagogues in Muslim occupied lands, if they are living under Muslims as Dhimmis or have a peace treaty with them?!

So this Surah says that Muslims should say: I will not worship what you worship and you will not worship what I worship: >Say, ˹O Prophet,˺ “O you **disbelievers**! 109:1. > >I do not **worship** what you **worship**,109:2 > >nor do you **worship** what I **worship**.109:3 > >I will never **worship what you **worship**,109:4 > >nor will you ever **worship** what I **worship**.109:5 > > > [Quran 109](https://quran.com/109?translations=131) However 29:46 says: >And argue not with the people of the Scripture (Jews and Christians), unless it be in (a way) that is better (with good words and in good manner, inviting them to Islamic Monotheism with His Verses), except with such of them as do wrong, and say (to them): "We believe in that which has been revealed to us and revealed to you; **our Ilah (God) and your Ilah (God) is One (i.e. Allah), and to Him we have submitted (as Muslims)**." > > [Quran 29:46](https://quran.com/29/46?translations=203) So in chapter 109 (kafiroon) Allah said that disbelievers do not worship the same God whom Muslims (Prophet Muhammad ﷺ) worship. While in 29:46 Allah tells us to say that our Ilah (God) and your Ilah (God) is One (i.e. Allah). How to resolve this apparent contradiction?

Can Muslims celebrate Valentine's Day ? I'm not asking if it is shirk (as in https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/29661/17163) . Instead, I am asking if it is permissible to celebrate Valentine's Day. Maybe, the married couple could go out together, and enjoy a night out having dinner at a restaurant or something like that. Are they allowed to spend time together, on this particular day?

Prophet muhammad saw is the last prophet sent by Allah so that means all other people who preach after his death are fraud and all other religions that came after his death are also fraud?

If for example, I do something regular, and it counts as a prostration of worship in another religion, which I didn't know, does it count as a prostration of worship, and does it mean, I have to repent?

> عَنْ حَكِيمَ بْنَ حِزَامٍ قَالَ: كَانَ مُحَمَّدٌ صلی اللہ علیہ وسلم أَحَبَّ رَجُلٍ فِي النَّاسِ إِلَيَّ فِي الْجَاهِلِيَّةِ فَلَمَّا تَنَبَّأَ وَخَرَجَ إِلَى الْمَدِينَةِ شَهِدَ حَكِيمُ بْنُ حِزَامٍ الْمَوْسِمَ وَهُوَ كَافِرٌ فَوَجَدَ حُلَّةً لِذِي يَزَنَ تُبَاعُ فَاشْتَرَاهَا بِخَمْسِينَ دِينَارًا لِيُهْدِيَهَا لِرَسُولِ اللهِ ‌صلی ‌اللہ ‌علیہ ‌وآلہ ‌وسلم ‌فَقَدِمَ بِهَا عَلَيْهِ الْمَدِينَةَ فَأَرَادَهُ عَلَى قَبْضِهَا هَدِيَّةً فَأَبَى قَالَ عُبَيْدُ اللهِ حَسِبْتُ أَنَّهُ قَالَ إِنَّا لَا نَقْبَلُ شَيْئًا مِنْ الْمُشْرِكِينَ وَلَكِنْ إِنْ شِئْتَ أَخَذْنَاهَا بِالثَّمَنِ فَأَعْطَيْتُهُ حِينَ أَبَى عَلَيَّ الْهَدِيَّةَ . > >حکیم بن حزام سے مروی ہے کہتے ہیں کہ دور جاہلیت میں محمد صلی اللہ علیہ وسلم مجھے بہت زیادہ محبوب تھے۔ جب آپ صلی اللہ علیہ وسلم کونبوت ملی اور آپ مدینے کی طرف (ہجرت کر) آئے تو حکیم بن حزام تجارت کے موسم میں بازار آئے ابھی وہ کافر تھے۔ انہوں نے ذی یزن کا ایک جبہ دیکھا جو فروخت کے لئے پیش کیا گیا تھا، اسے پچاس دینار کے بدلے خرید لیا تاکہ رسول اللہ صلی اللہ علیہ وسلم کو تحفہ دے سکیں۔ اس جبے کو لے کر مدینے آگئے اور آپ کو بطور تحفہ دینا چاہا تو آپ نے انکار کر دیا۔ عبیداللہ کہتے ہیں کہ: میرا خیال ہے کہ آپ صلی اللہ علیہ وسلم نے فرمایا: ہم مشرکین سے کوئی چیز قبول نہیں کرتے لیکن اگر تم چاہو تو ہم قیمت کے بدلے اسے لے سکتے ہیں۔ جب انہوں نے تحفہ لینے سے انکار کیا تو میں نے انہیں (قیمتاً) دے دیا۔ > >( ) >Al-Silsila-tus-Sahiha#1822 >Status: صحیح According to above Hadith, the Holy Prophet (PBUH) refused to accept a gift from Mushrik, but asked him to sell it to be accepted. Is a tip and Gift equal? Especially when it comes from Mushrik? I'm a freelancer. I work over a platform. Sometimes with rewards, I am given some extra tip. Usually clients are Christians. I am not sure sure if accepting would be same as accepting gift from Mushrik.

What, if anything, is _fundamentally_ unique about Islam? Obviously there are different stories, texts, and traditions associated with Islam than with other religions. But if we cut away all the fluff from all the world religions... Is there anything that stands out as unique about the core of Islam? To clarify what I'm asking: * Many religions have prophets that claim to speak on behalf of god(s). * Many religions have scriptures, often claimed to be inspired by their god(s). * Many religions report miracles, or other supernatural phenomena. * Many religions claim to be the only "true" religion. * Many religions claim to offer forgiveness of sin. * Many religions claim to be historically based and accurate. * Many religions claim to improve society. If Islam just has a "better version" of all of these points, it sounds like Islam is fundamentally the same as most/all other religions, it's just "more completely evolved," so to speak. So what I'm asking for is any characteristics of Islam that are **fundamentally unique and important**, and not just improvements on existing ideas.

Buddhism has two meanings, as a religion and as a philosophy. Most Buddhists are followers of the religion, not the philosophy. This question is about the philosophy. Nirvana is not the Buddhist heaven (the followers of the Buddhist religion believe that depending on karma, a person will go to either a good or bad afterlife, and then be reincarnated as either an advanced being or a lowly being). Nirvana is a state of mind. According to my understanding: The view of Buddhism is that suffering is due not only to bad stimuli, but also ultimately good stimuli as they inevitably are lost eventually, and that hurts as well. So the first step towards Nirvana is to cut all connections to stimuli and emotions. So at this stage the Buddhist is constantly content no matter what is happening around him. That is why Thich Quang Duc didn’t react to burning himself alive to protest for the suffering of his people. He wasn’t resisting the pain, he completely ignored it: https://youtu.be/OxrBik16Hzg The next stage is realising that your emotions and thoughts are also stimuli, and thus working to abandon them as well, so you achieve a state of blankness and peace. The last stage where the individual reaches Nirvana is when he loses his sense of self completely, by not associating with even his personality and memories. ——— So based on this, assuming it is true, what will Allah do to Buddhists who have achieved Nirvana (also known as Buddhas) after they die, since being completely impartial to pleasure or pain, this world, heaven, and hell would all carry the same lack of value to them?

Can a Muslim sell things that are required only by non-Muslims? A very good example I can give is that of a book vendor whose customers demand for (say) a Bible or Gita. Can a Muslim sell such things driven by the market demands?