Post: Assalamu Alaikum wa Rahmatullah, I’m a student and our college farewell is coming up. I’m conflicted about attending for the following reasons: 1. The people in my class are mostly involved in backbiting and slander — I feel morally out of place. 2. I recently ended a haram relationship with a girl who will be there. I fear falling back into sin if I see her. 3. The event includes music, dancing, and free mixing. Girls dress inappropriately, and many friends talk indecently about them. I don’t want to be part of such a gathering. 4. I feel no benefit in attending and believe I will regret it. However, I know some friends might mock or feel bad if I don’t show up. My concern: Am I right Islamically to skip this event, even if others don’t like it? Please advise with Qur'an, Hadith, or scholarly opinion.

If their intention is to make Allah's word supreme etc, then does the hadith about deeds judged by intent mean they'll be rewarded for their actions even though they're haram (killing non-combatants)?

> The Prophet sallallaahu `alayhi wa sallam ( may Allaah exalt his > mention ) said: “Any woman who falsely attributes her child to a > people to whom he does not belong, she has no relation to (the > religion of) Allah.” [Abu Daawood and An-Nasaa’i] Although the wording of the Hadeeth is about women, the ruling applies to men as well. If the husband becomes certain that this woman has committed adultery and falsely attributed her illegitimate child to him and he refrains from denying the paternity of the child, then he would be falsely attributing to himself a child that is not his. Accordingly, he becomes subject to the warning stated in the Hadeeth. This is in addition to the consequences of not denying the paternity of the illegitimate child with regard to rights as he would unjustly take part of his legitimate children’s rights. It was given in a fatwa- https://www.islamweb.net/en/fatwa/406384/husband-abroad-for-3-years-and-once-he-arrived-wife-had-baby So if my understanding is correct, Let's consider a scenario, a wife becomes pregnant by Zina, to hide her sins she attributes the child to her husband, while the husband is not aware of the fact that it is not his child. So, will she be under the wrath of Allah(swt)? Am also curious that will such things be put on trial or be exposed to the husband in judgement day? Edit: Also the Hadeeth in which the Prophet said “He who deceives is not one of us” is an authentic Hadeeth narrated byMuslim, Abu Daawood, At-Tirmidhi, Ibn Maajah and others may also imply that it is a sin to cheat a person.

I have read an article of Christianity which reads as follows: - > They indeed have disbelieved who say: Lo! Allah is the Messiah, son of Mary ... 5:17 - > They surely disbelieve who say: Lo! Allah is the Messiah, son of Mary... 5:72 I have never heard any Christian say or read in any theological book the formulation "God is Christ" or "God is the Messiah". The common formulation is that "Jesus is God" (and never, "God is Jesus") or "The Messiah is God". The Qur'anic inversion of the word order is never used, and would, in fact, be wrong as the article What do we mean when we say "Jesus is God"? explains in detail. This is not a modern idea, but one that has been held by Christians throughout the centuries. This was even noted by Muslim author Neal Robinson, who makes mention of an ancient Nestorian reference: > ... The text which dates from around 550 CE. concludes a discussion of the Trinity with the words ‘The Messiah is God but God is not the Messiah’. The Qur'an echoes only the latter half of the statement. C. Schedl, Muhammad and Jesus (Vienna: Herder, 1978), p. 531. (Robinson, Christ In Islam and Christianity [State University of New York Press, Albany 1991], p. 197; bold emphasis mine) Why then does the Qur'an invert the proper statement of the Christian faith? The verse seems to means as though Christians only believe Jesus to be God which isn't the case since they believe God to be three persons? Can anyone correct me if I'm wrong? Anyone please clarify.

It is totally accidental fact that i just used to change my clothes than i touche my penis unintentionally then i felt a little bit warm or aroused. After that I felt guilt or confusion about my ramadan fast is it still valid or my fasting has been broken, because of this happend. Is my obligatory fast in Ramadan still valid ? ? or it has been broken ?? (At this incident there was no semen or any kind of liquid that dropped or even i do not touch for a second)

Assalamu alaikum, please i will like to know whichh is correct, if my husband is back from work, can he open the door himself and enter the house because he has the keys or he has to knock and wait for me to come open it. Shukraan

is buying prime (one time buy) on csgo allowed? with it you can get free cases when you level without specifically paying for it. but you pay once on the start to get prime. you can sell the cases or the skins that drop from them. you do not pay for each case. >You can potentially get free cases in CS2 through weekly care package drops, in-game events, and by participating in community giveaways or using third-party services that offer daily free case openings. Additionally, some sites offer free cases in exchange for completing tasks or watching ads. means the is no risk of losing money. also i dont intend to sell the cases as it then will undoubtedly considered gambling for the person who buys them. i want to open the cases and sell the contents for a fair price the thing is that the you dont know what skin you will get is this considered gambling

For the past few days, I have been considering studying Islam in depth. I have a strong desire to become a scholar—such as a Sheikh, Mufti, Maulana, Mu’allim, or Allama—following in the footsteps of renowned scholars like Nasiruddin Albani, Zakir Naik, Taqi Usmani, and Mufti Menk. At 28 years old, I have decided to dedicate the rest of my life to the field of Da’wah, but I want to first acquire proper and authentic knowledge. Being born and raised in a Muslim family, I have a basic understanding of Islam, but I feel that it is not sufficient for effectively spreading the message of Islam. Currently, I have limited knowledge about prominent madrasas and little to no connection with Islamic scholars. Is there a way for me to study Islam on my own, or is formal education in a madrasa necessary to achieve deep Islamic knowledge?

> "And whoever kills a believer intentionally, his recompense shall be > hell, he shall abide therein and God’s wrath shall be on him and his > curse, and is prepared for him a great torment” > > > *(Surah Nisa:93).* Muawiyah ibn Abu Sufyan killed respectively ordered the killing of Sahabah, e.g. Amr bin al-Hamiq, Malik bin Ashthar, Hujr bin Adbar, only for the reason that they were followers of Ali ibn Abi Talib. > “Ayesha said: ‘Mu’awiya you killed Hujr and his associates, By Allah! The Prophet told me ‘In the ditch of Adra seven men will be killed, due to this all the skies and Allah will be upset”. A contemporary Hanafi scholar, Mufti Ghulam Rasul, wrote in his book *Subeh al-Sadiq*, p.93/94 , that Hujr and his companions were killed because they refused to curse Ali ibn Abi Talib. > Tarikh ibn Asakir, V.12, p.227 Additionally, he instigated the poisoning of the first grandson of the Holy Prophet, Hassan ibn Ali. > > “Sho’ubi states that Mu’awiya sent a message to Jada bint al-Ash’ath bin al Qays that if you poison Hasan then I shall marry you to Yazeed > and in addition to this I shall give 100,000 dirhams. When Hasan was > martyred Judh sent a message to Mu’awiya asking that he fulfil his > side of the deal. Mu’awiya sent the money but said “I reject that > matter of Yazeed since I want him to remain alive, had this matter not > occurred then I would have married you to Yazeed”. > > Tadkhirat au Khawwas, p. 192 > > Mu’awiya reached an agreement with Jada bint al-Ash’ath bin al Qays, namely 100,000 dirhams if she poisons Imam Hasan. Allamah Zamakshari, Rabi’ ul Abrar, V.4, p. 208 > Qatada and Abu Bakr bin Hafs stated that Hasan was administered poison, via his wife Ja’da bint Ashath. One group have said that Mu’awiya have sent Ja’da the poison and upon administering this poison, Ja’da was rewarded”. Allamah Ibn Abdul Barr, al-Istiab > “This is commonly known among the people that his wife Ja’da administered poison to him upon the orders of Ameer Mu’awiya.” Maulana Abdur Rahman Jaami, Shawahid un Nubuwwa, p.303 Furthermore, he appointed his son Yazid as the ruler over the Muslims after him, who was the pure evil. In the light of the above mentioned vers of the Holy Qur'an, the Shia seem right to curse him, by asking Allah swt to deprive him of His mercy. Why can't our Sunni brothers agree to this?

Okay, this has been on my mind the whole day. And after searching the entire internet, articles, youtube videos and what not, I cannot find a legitimate answer anywhere. So, I decided to post the question here myself. PLEASE NOTE: The question isn't why Allah didn't forgive Iblish when He forgave Adam (AS) and Eve (RA) for their sins. The Question is WILL ALLAH FORGIVE Iblish IF he decides to REPENT TO ALLAH (SWT). I came across a Dr. Zakir Nayek video during researching and while it did not answer the question (not even close) he mentioned that ***Allah (SWT) has filled Iblish's heart with sins*** (and Allah [SWT] knows the future- yes, undoubtedly). Why would He fill his heart with sins? Isn't it contradicting with the FREE WILL we Mankind and the Jinn possess? What if the Devil finally came to the realization of his horrible mistakes and decided to seek Allah's forgiveness? For indeed Allah is the most Merciful and the most Forgiving, will Allah (SWT) not forgive him? If no then why not?

im confused about this verse and its commentaries ibn kathir said > "Regarding the words, {The sun cannot catch up with the moon}, Mujahid said: Each of them has a limit or orbit that it cannot go beyond, and it cannot fall short of that. When one is dominant, the other disappears, and when the dominant one disappears, the other one dominates. Ikrimah said concerning the Ayah, لاَ الشَّمْسُ يَنبَغِى لَهَآ أَن تدْرِكَ القَمَرَ (It is not for the sun to overtake the moon,) this means that each of them has its time when it prevails. So it is not appropriate for the sun to rise at night. وَلاَ الَّيْلُ سَابِقُ النَّهَارِ (nor does the night outstrip the day.) means, after night has passed, it is not right for another night to come until it has been day. The authority of the sun is during the day and the authority of the moon is at night. Ad-Dahhak said, "The night does not depart from here until the day comes from here -- and he pointed to the east.'' Tafsir Ibn Kathir (6/578)/ tafsir ibn kathir on quran 36:40" imam ibn jarir said >It is not appropriate for the sun to catch up with the moon, because that would lead to the light of the sun covering the light of the moon, so it would be day all the time, with no night. {Nor can the night outstrip the day} [Ya-Sin 36:40]. Here Allah, may He be exalted is saying that the night should not overwhelm the day, because that would lead to its darkness cancelling out the light of day, so it would be night all the time. Al-Tabari (19/438). see this in a geocentric perspective where the sun and moon are orbiting the earth how to understand this verse when the moon is visible at day (see the link) the moon doesnt seem to dissapear during the day when the sun is dominant The First Quarter Moon rises in the middle of the day and can be seen in the daytime sky. Half of the side of the Moon facing Earth is illuminated by the Sun. The First Quarter Moon is also seen against a starry night sky until it sets below the western horizon at approximately midnight, leaving the sky very dark. there are multiple pictures of the moon during the day while being close to the sun

The Qur'an says: > And that We have made every living thing out of water [21:30 ] Aren't jinn *living things*? What are they made of? Isn't it a contradiction with the the following verse? > and the jinn We had created before from flaming fire. [15:27 ]

Alsalamu alaykom I used to read tarot cards and then i repented after knowing that reading tarot is haram So i have a big box of tarot cards and i don’t know what is the proper and safe way to get rid of them. Shall i burn them? Bury them ? I don’t really know And i don’t want anyone else find them or use them So please help me because i was told that tarot cards might be related to aljin and so on So how can i do this without get hurt or hurt anyone?

Reported by muslim, 939 (source ): “Whoever glorifies Allah (says Subhan Allah ) thirty-three times immediately after each prayer, and praises Allah (says Al-hamdu Lillah) thirty-three times, and magnifies Allah (says Allahu akbar) thirty-three times, this makes ninety-nine, then to complete one hundred says La ilaha ill-Allah wahdahu la sharika lahu, lahul-mulk wa lahul-hamd wa huwa ‘ala kulli shayin qadir (There is no god except Allah Alone, with no partner, His is the power and His is the praise, and He is Able to do all things) his sins will be forgiven even if they are like the foam of the sea.” My question is that after every fard salah, instead of saying those phrases separately (i.e. SubhanAllah 33 times, then AlhamdoliAllah 33 times, then AllahuAkbar 33 times, and then La ilaha illaAllahu wahdahulashareekalahu wahua ala qulle shayin qadeer one time), can I say **SubhanAllahi walhamdoliAllahi walailaha illaAllahu wAllahuakbar** 33 times followed by **La ilaha illaAllahu wahdahulashareekalahu wahua ala qulle shayin qadeer** once, because my tongue is used to it and I somehow find it easier?

Are there any guidelines provided by Islam on **how** and **when** to protest? And **how** to decide the **magnitude** of protests and **who** will decide it? Please cite references from the Holy Quran, Ahadeth, Islamic history, and the life of Prophet Muhammad(PBUH) or Ahleybayt.

I know my question is embarrassing but I'm at my edge.so the question is Is it permissible to use artificial penis during intercourse with wife? I have been suffering from a sexual problem and tried many top notch treatments but it is unable to get into the satisfactory level. But my wife is constantly asking for bed time. I want to fullfil her need but my body us unable to. I'm too shy to ask any scholar and my marriage life is at terrible situation.so it is permissible to use artificial tings?

Some non Muslim used to ask me that why do Muslim don't allow death bodies to stay out or in the house for more than one day. Can someone help me with the answer please

**Sahih Muslim #2015** Maimuna reported that one morning Allah’s Messenger was silent with grief. Maimuna said: Allah’s Messenger, I find a change in your mood today. Allah’s Messenger said: Gabriel had promised me that he would meet me tonight, but he did not meet me. By Allah, he never broke his promises, and Allah’s Messenger spent the day in this sad mood. Then it occurred to him that there had been a puppy under their cot. He commanded and it was turned out. He then took some water in his hand and sprinkled it at that place. When it was evening Gabriel met him and he said to him: You promised me that you would meet me the previous night. He said: Yes, but we do not enter a house in which there is a dog or a picture. Then on that very morning he commanded the k!lling of the dogs until he announced that the dog kept for the orchards should also be k!lled, but he spared the dog meant for the protection of extensive fields or big gardens. ****Sunan Abi Dawud #2845** (Sahih - Al Albaani)** Narrated Abdullah ibn Mughaffal: The Prophet (ﷺ) said: Were dogs not a species of creature I should command that they all be k!lled; but k!ll every pure black one. **Sahih al-Bukhari #3323** Narrated Abdullah bin `Umar: Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) ordered that the dogs should be k!lled. I have no idea how this is justifiable. From whatever justifications I've seen, they say its 1) The "dogs" are not dogs but hyenas, wolf, etc, if thats really the case then the scholars wouldn't cite these hadiths to say why we shouldn't pet dogs, or in the worst case to prove that its Sunnah to k!ll black dogs (even if they are not evil). 2) The dogs were disease causing and violent hence the Prophet allowed the k!llings - however they donot cite any authentic references for this, its just an assumption. So from whatever material available, im getting the picture from the first hadith that the he ordered the k!llings of dogs just because a puppy under his bed prevented Angel Gabriels from entering his house. If there is any better explaination to these hadiths please mention it below.

I work in real estate as a muslim women with full hijab I have to show house to many people but I keep my distance and also my question is can I post some videos showing homes on social media or can I do podcasts,so I get leads from there also I am the only source of income for my family!but I want everything to be halal but I am confused as I see so many women covered modestly and promoting there business online please answer me! Jazakallah khair

why is divorce in Islam unfair to women?. I heard women can only ask for divorce under certain circumstances and only from the court while men can get it as he pleases.