It is found in https://quran.com/en/al-hajj/46 : >Have they not travelled throughout the land so their hearts may reason, and their ears may listen? Indeed, it is not the eyes that are blind, but it is the hearts in the chests that grow blind. From the explanations I've seen online, the idea of a heart thinking is meant to be considered metaphorically, however, I find this argument to not be plausible. Firstly, in Q22:46, it mentions the physical location of the heart here: **the hearts in the chests**. If such a notion was to be taken metaphorically, why is the location of the heart mentioned? Secondly, the idea of the heart being the center of thought was a notion commonly found during that time and place. Why would the Quran use what would be considered faulty terminology?

Why did Allah send more than one book to mankind.Explain your Answer. Please consider adding references from the quran and sunnah to your answer.

What exactly is meant by the bold part in the below verse: > O Prophet, indeed We have made lawful to you your wives to whom you > have given their due compensation and those your right hand possesses > from what Allah has returned to you [of captives] and the daughters of > your paternal uncles and the daughters of your paternal aunts and the > daughters of your maternal uncles and the daughters of your maternal > aunts who emigrated with you and a believing woman if she gives > herself to the Prophet [and] if the Prophet wishes to marry her, > __[this is] only for you, excluding the [other] believers.__ We certainly know what We have made obligatory upon them concerning their > wives and those their right hands possess, [but this is for you] in > order that there will be upon you no discomfort. And ever is Allah > Forgiving and Merciful. I guess the specialty exists in this part since it is the last thing that is said: > a believing woman if she gives herself to the Prophet [and] if the > Prophet wishes to marry her Is that correct? And if so please explain how this is different for other believers.

Usually when we keep neeyath to offer qurban as men we don't shave or cut our hair from the 1st of dul haj till the qurban is offered, does the same apply when we perform haj ? The confusion was as we will go for umra 1st and we need to trim the hair after we completed the umrah then after few days we prepare for haj

Sparked by [this question](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/39146/how-do-we-know-that-marriage-age-is-determined-by-puberty) I did some reading up on marrying off young girls. I'm posting unabridged sections from [Reliance of the Traveler](http://www.mediafire.com/file/8hofja243dhb2g1/The_Reliance_complete_full_scan.pdf) to give the full context of my question. My question is at the end of the post and concerns what comparable rulings, if any, other madhahib have in these regards. I will post a short summary of the aspects of the quoted text that are relevant to my question under "Summary" at the bottom of the post as well. Section m3.13 of Reliance of the Traveler reads: > m3.13 Guardians are of two types, those who may compel their female charges > to marry someone, and those who may not. > > (1) The only guardians who may compel their charge to marry are a > virgin bride's father or father's father, *compel* meaning to marry her > to a suitable match (def: m4) without her consent. > > (2) Those who may not compel her are not entitled to marry her to someone > unless she accepts and gives her permission. > > Whenever the bride is a virgin, the father or father's father may > marry her to someone without her permission, though it is recommended > to ask her permission if she has reached puberty. A virgin's silence > is considered as permission. > > As for the nonvirgin of sound mind, no > one may marry her to another after she has reached puberty without her > express permission, no matter whether the guardian is the father, > father's father, or someone else. Section m3.14 is missing in the translation; it's possible that section m3.14 is the two paragraphs starting at "Whenever the bride is a virgin..." in the above quote. Section m3.15 discusses cases where the decision of the guardian and the virgin on who she is to be married to clash with each other: > m3.15 No guardian may marry a woman to some one who is not a suitable match > (def: m4) without her acceptance and the acceptance of all who can be > guardians (def: m3.7). If the Islamic magistrate is her guardian, he > may not under any circumstances marry her to someone who is not a > suitable match for her. > > If the bride selects a suitor who is not a suitable match for her, the > guardian is not obliged to marry her to him. If she selects a suitable > match but her guardian chooses a different suitor who is also a > suitable match, then the man chosen by the guardian takes precedence > if the guardian is one who may lawfully compel her to marry (def: > m3.13(1)), while the one she selects takes precedence when the > guardian may not lawfully compel her to marry (m3.13(2)). Sections m4.0 to m4.2 read: > m4.0 (N: The definition of a *suitable match* should not be > misunderstood as a recommendation for whom to marry. It is merely a > legal restriction to protect a woman's interests when the father or > grandfather of a virgin marry her to someone without her consent (dis: > m3.13,15). As for when she wishes to marry someone who is not a > suitable match, and her guardian has no objection, there is nothing > wrong or offensive in her doing so.) > > m4.1 *Suitability* concerns lineage, religiousness, profession, and being > free of defects that permit annulling the marriage contract (def: m7). (N: > As for color, it is of no consideration in suitability.) > > m4.2 The following are not suitable matches for one another: > > (1) a non-Arab man for an Arab woman (0: because of the hadith that > the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace) said, "Allah has > chosen the Arabs above others"); > > (2) a corrupt man (def: 024.3) for a virtuous woman (0: though it is > sufficient for the would-be husband to have given up his wrongdoing); > > (3) a man of a lowly profession for the daughter of someone with a > higher profession, such as a tailor wanting to marry a merchant's > daughter (A: though an Islamic scholar is a suitable match for any > level whatever); > > (4) or someone with a defect that permits annulling the marriage (def: > m7) for someone without such defects. Being wealthy has nothing to do > with suitability (0: for money comes and goes, and those with > self-respect and intelligence do not take pride in it), nor does being > elderly. Sections m4.3 to m4.5 discuss matters that are irrelevant to my question. Section m7 talks about reproductive defects, insanity, or severe bodily defects/illnesses as being grounds for annulment. **Summary:** According to the shafii legal manual Reliance of the Traveler, if the father or grandfather of a virgin is her wali (legal guardian), he may marry her off to someone who is a suitable match without her consent. Any man is a suitable match, barring the listed reasons of unsuitability; in particular, old age and lack of wealth are not barriers to suitability. **Question:** What is the fiqh (jurisprudence) in these regards in the other madhahib (schools of law), i.e.: - can anyone marry off a virgin without her consent? - who can she not be married off to without her consent?

What is the fiqh on coerced marriages across the 4 sunni muslim schools of thought? Some questions to consider would be: can a virgin child who is coerced into marriage divorce herself on the basis of the coercion? Can a virgin adult be coerced into a marriage?

*The Reliance of the Traveller*, by Ahmad ibn Naqib al-Misri, translated by Nuh Ha Mim Keller , states in the context of marriage: > m4.2 The following are not suitable matches for one another: > > (1) a non-Arab man for an Arab woman (O: because of the hadith that the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace) said, "**Allah has chosen the Arabs above others**"); > > — [Reliance Of The Traveller ; p. 523, Bottom](https://archive.org/stream/RelianceOfTheTraveller1_201712/Reliance%20of%20the%20traveller1#page/n541/mode/2up) > Arabic Text (of Hadith Only): > > إن الله اصطفى العرب على غيرهم (Here, "O:" indicates an "excerpt from the commentary of Sheikh 'Umar Barakat".) This took me by surprise, since it seems to directly contradict another hadith: > ... There is no virtue for an Arab over a non-Arab, nor for a non-Arab over an Arab ... See https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/38040/17163 **Question**: Is the hadith "Allah has chosen the Arabs above others" reliable, and how does it not contradict "no virtue for an Arab over a non-Arab"? ---- An anti-Islam blog quotes a SunniPath fatwa (no longer available): > **The fact that Allah Most High has chosen the Arabs over other nations is affirmed in rigorously authenticated hadiths of the Prophet**, may Allah bless him and give him peace; related by Bukhari and Muslim in their “Sahih” in the beginning of the chapter of merits, # 5897, on the authority of Wathilah ibn al-Asqa` who said, “I heard the Messenger of Allah, may Allah bless him and grant him peace, say, 'Verily Allah has chosen Kinanah from the son of Isma'il, and He has chosen Quraysh from among Kinanah and He has chosen Hashim from among Quraysh and He has chosen me from the Bani Hashim.'” The latter hadith is at Jami` at-Tirmidhi 3605 and 3606 , both listed as sahih. Islam Q&A seems to say two contradictory things on the topic: "... Arabs are superior to others in terms of descent and lineage ..." and "... an Arab Muslim cannot be superior to a non-Arab Muslim just because he is an Arab ...".

Can someone verify if this is true: > Ibn Al-Arabi said, “Lineage is an expression referring to the mixture > of fluids between a male and a female from a religious legal point of > view. However, if this union (between male and female) occurs through > disobedience (fornication) **then the resulting child is not considered** > **part of a person’s true lineage. That is why a daughter born from zina** > **is not mentioned in Allah’s saying, ‘Prohibited to you (for marriage)** > **are: your mothers and daughters’ (Surah 4:23) because she is not** > **considered a daughter according to the most authentic teaching of our** > **religion.. If there is no legal lineage then there is no legal** > **relationship; for zina does not prohibit (from marriage) the daughter** > of the mother (you committed zina with) nor the mother of a woman (you > committed zina with). […]I (Qurtubi) said: **The scholars have differed** > **on the permissibility of a man marrying his daughter who was the** > **result of an adulterous relationship; or for that matter marrying his** > **sister or granddaughter who was the result of zina.** Some prohibited > this type of relationship; among them was Ibn Al Qasim, which is also > the saying of Abu Hanifa and his companions. Others however al**lowed > this type of marriage such as Abdul Malik Al Maj’shun,** **which is also** > **the saying of Al-Shafi’i.** This was detailed in the explanation of > Surah 4 (Al Nisa’). > > Tafsir Al Qurtubi 25:54 Al Maududi seemed to have mentioned this and showed his disproval: > The prohibition about daughter also applies to the daughter of the son > and the daughter of the daughter. There is, however, a difference of > opinion in regard to a girl born of an illicit relationship. Imam Abu > Hanifah, Imam Malik and lmam Ahmad-bin-Hanbal (may Allah bless them > all) are of the opinion that she too is unlawful like the lawful > daughter, **but Imam Shafi 'i does not consider an illegitimate > daughter unlawful.** But the very idea is repugnant that one should > marry a girl about whom one has the knowledge that she is of one's own > seed. > > Tafsir Al Maududi 4:23 If this is true, why did Imam Al Shafi'i permit it. On what basis from the Qur'an and Sunnah? Or was it simply ijtihad?

I am married and have a daughter. Initially, to keep my wife happy, I lived with her in her parents' house. However, over time, she has become increasingly lazy and disobedient towards me, prioritizing her parents' wishes over mine. She now refuses to live with me in our own home but still asks for financial support. While I provide monthly nafkah for her, I'm considering limiting additional expenses since she's not living with me. Should I continue giving her all the money she asks for, or just the monthly support while she stays with her parents?

Assalamu Aleykum Wa Rahmatullahi Wa Barakatuhu is it Haram to open cases(loot boxes) in games without buying them(spending any money real or in game) in game you get free case(loot box) if you play well enough, so i wanted to know, if we are allowed to open this cases or it's still considered Haram (gambling or the random factor or anything else) or in other game you play good you get random reward, to open it you must click a few times, then you will get something random, again is it gambling? im not buying anything, just free gifts, but im worried about the 'chance' of winning something

I was studying a marriage/divorce fiqh and one situation got into my mind and I couldn't find any answers to it in the internet, so I thought it will be heplful to ask it here and get an answer, so if anyone gets into this situation they will know an answer. As I know, if a couple get divorced, they need to wait for 3 periods (iddah) and after that the divorce will be finalized and during this period husband should keep providing for his wife. But what if the initiator was the wife, for example: it's not surprising in the modern world if the wife lefts his husband (moving to another country, doesn't want to live with him anymore, lefts to the parents and e.t.c.) and is demanding for a divorce. In such situation there is no option for a husband left other than give the divorce and there is no blame for the husband to do it, obviously, but one question everyone is forgetting in such situation is what about providing during this period? Because if he's not an initiator and they don't live together anymore, does he need to keep providing for her during this period? Because obviously providing while living together and not living together are two different things (economically and spiritually).

Can I **marry** my *mother’s* sister’ daughter according to Islam.

Today's Artificial intelligence are capable of doing what human can do (playing chess , chatbot) . But to which limit an artificial intelligence is considered haram ? For example , creating a sentience artificial general intelligence which is capable of being a living thing , is it considered haram ? how about artificial intelligence with eye(camera) and ear(microphone) but only can do specific task such as playing chess , chatbot , ect ?

Assalamu allaikum wa rahmatullahi wa barakatuh. Question: How do I wash off the najasah from my body? Everyone says that it should be washed off, but how exactly? Will it be enough to take a handful of water and pour it on the area and wipe it off? Will this water not spread the najasa?

assalamualaikum, everywhere in the world if someone wants to be a pilot, then He or She must have a valid class 1 medical test assessment. And there is a medical test in class 1 called "Naked body check" where the candidates have to show their private parts for few seconds to the airforce Doctor, so will it be a sin if someone shows their private part to the Doctor of the same Gender?for medical test? There will be only 1 doctor who will check the private part without touching.

If so, would that mean that we’re copying pagans? I remember hearing a while ago about some man that twisted the abrahamic beliefs in Arabia and that’s why the pagans did this, is it true? Can anyone explain this to me?

I want to buy books and movies from sites that are only specific to certain areas. I want to pay but I can't. When I use VPN I can access those page and buy. Sites like *hotstar*, *popcornflix*, etc. Is it haram to use VPN, since I ain't pirating, I am buying.

like touching and as we know that women's can take of their hijab in front of small kids as their kids but not in front of big boys.at what age does a boy cannot touch a girl anymore.

While I know that Islam [allow a man to marry four wives at the same time](https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/76/167) , it prohibited men from marrying specific women, such as mother. My question is, who are those women that are prohibited for a man? And are they prohibited forever? Thanks in advance.

Salam alaykum, i have a major doubt right now. It's verse 5 in Surah Mulk: And indeed, We adorned the lowest heaven with lamps, and made them for stoning devils, for whom We have also prepared the torment of the Blaze. Now, i am aware that this doesn't say that it's the stars itselves that are thrown. My doubt is that it reads to me that meteors originate from stars, which is obviously wrong. And every tafseer that i read said the same. They always said that meteors are taken from "the fire of the stars". Only Ibn Katheer wasn't sure i think. Can anyone explain, or show a tafseer that says that meteors are not caused by stars?