I have been married for 7 years, and I work on my own, while my wife takes care of our child. Every time I get my salary, I always give 100% of it to my wife. When I get a freelance project, I also always give the earnings to my wife. However, I have debts that may exceed my salary, and my wife tells me that I am stingy and irresponsible as a husband. When I really have nothing, I ask my mother for money and give it to her. Almost every day, I ask my mother for household expenses. If my mother can't provide, I am seen as unable to make an effort. Am I really not providing financially in a case like this?

I'm aware that a man is obligated to provide for his wife and children, but if the man is in the hospital or incapacitated, will the wife be obligated to provide for her kids in the least? I understand community support or zakat funds are supposed to be exhausted first before going to the wife, but isn't the wife 'obligated' to take care of her children even if financially in absence of other means if she's able to e.g has savings, wealth, etc? I'm specifically Keen to understand about the obligation part, not good-will or optional act.

I am married and have a daughter. Initially, to keep my wife happy, I lived with her in her parents' house. However, over time, she has become increasingly lazy and disobedient towards me, prioritizing her parents' wishes over mine. She now refuses to live with me in our own home but still asks for financial support. While I provide monthly nafkah for her, I'm considering limiting additional expenses since she's not living with me. Should I continue giving her all the money she asks for, or just the monthly support while she stays with her parents?

I was studying a marriage/divorce fiqh and one situation got into my mind and I couldn't find any answers to it in the internet, so I thought it will be heplful to ask it here and get an answer, so if anyone gets into this situation they will know an answer. As I know, if a couple get divorced, they need to wait for 3 periods (iddah) and after that the divorce will be finalized and during this period husband should keep providing for his wife. But what if the initiator was the wife, for example: it's not surprising in the modern world if the wife lefts his husband (moving to another country, doesn't want to live with him anymore, lefts to the parents and e.t.c.) and is demanding for a divorce. In such situation there is no option for a husband left other than give the divorce and there is no blame for the husband to do it, obviously, but one question everyone is forgetting in such situation is what about providing during this period? Because if he's not an initiator and they don't live together anymore, does he need to keep providing for her during this period? Because obviously providing while living together and not living together are two different things (economically and spiritually).