What is the fiqh on coerced marriages across the 4 sunni muslim schools of thought? Some questions to consider would be: can a virgin child who is coerced into marriage divorce herself on the basis of the coercion? Can a virgin adult be coerced into a marriage?

*The Reliance of the Traveller*, by Ahmad ibn Naqib al-Misri, translated by Nuh Ha Mim Keller , states in the context of marriage: > m4.2 The following are not suitable matches for one another: > > (1) a non-Arab man for an Arab woman (O: because of the hadith that the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace) said, "**Allah has chosen the Arabs above others**"); > > — [Reliance Of The Traveller ; p. 523, Bottom](https://archive.org/stream/RelianceOfTheTraveller1_201712/Reliance%20of%20the%20traveller1#page/n541/mode/2up) > Arabic Text (of Hadith Only): > > إن الله اصطفى العرب على غيرهم (Here, "O:" indicates an "excerpt from the commentary of Sheikh 'Umar Barakat".) This took me by surprise, since it seems to directly contradict another hadith: > ... There is no virtue for an Arab over a non-Arab, nor for a non-Arab over an Arab ... See https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/38040/17163 **Question**: Is the hadith "Allah has chosen the Arabs above others" reliable, and how does it not contradict "no virtue for an Arab over a non-Arab"? ---- An anti-Islam blog quotes a SunniPath fatwa (no longer available): > **The fact that Allah Most High has chosen the Arabs over other nations is affirmed in rigorously authenticated hadiths of the Prophet**, may Allah bless him and give him peace; related by Bukhari and Muslim in their “Sahih” in the beginning of the chapter of merits, # 5897, on the authority of Wathilah ibn al-Asqa` who said, “I heard the Messenger of Allah, may Allah bless him and grant him peace, say, 'Verily Allah has chosen Kinanah from the son of Isma'il, and He has chosen Quraysh from among Kinanah and He has chosen Hashim from among Quraysh and He has chosen me from the Bani Hashim.'” The latter hadith is at Jami` at-Tirmidhi 3605 and 3606 , both listed as sahih. Islam Q&A seems to say two contradictory things on the topic: "... Arabs are superior to others in terms of descent and lineage ..." and "... an Arab Muslim cannot be superior to a non-Arab Muslim just because he is an Arab ...".

Can someone verify if this is true: > Ibn Al-Arabi said, “Lineage is an expression referring to the mixture > of fluids between a male and a female from a religious legal point of > view. However, if this union (between male and female) occurs through > disobedience (fornication) **then the resulting child is not considered** > **part of a person’s true lineage. That is why a daughter born from zina** > **is not mentioned in Allah’s saying, ‘Prohibited to you (for marriage)** > **are: your mothers and daughters’ (Surah 4:23) because she is not** > **considered a daughter according to the most authentic teaching of our** > **religion.. If there is no legal lineage then there is no legal** > **relationship; for zina does not prohibit (from marriage) the daughter** > of the mother (you committed zina with) nor the mother of a woman (you > committed zina with). […]I (Qurtubi) said: **The scholars have differed** > **on the permissibility of a man marrying his daughter who was the** > **result of an adulterous relationship; or for that matter marrying his** > **sister or granddaughter who was the result of zina.** Some prohibited > this type of relationship; among them was Ibn Al Qasim, which is also > the saying of Abu Hanifa and his companions. Others however al**lowed > this type of marriage such as Abdul Malik Al Maj’shun,** **which is also** > **the saying of Al-Shafi’i.** This was detailed in the explanation of > Surah 4 (Al Nisa’). > > Tafsir Al Qurtubi 25:54 Al Maududi seemed to have mentioned this and showed his disproval: > The prohibition about daughter also applies to the daughter of the son > and the daughter of the daughter. There is, however, a difference of > opinion in regard to a girl born of an illicit relationship. Imam Abu > Hanifah, Imam Malik and lmam Ahmad-bin-Hanbal (may Allah bless them > all) are of the opinion that she too is unlawful like the lawful > daughter, **but Imam Shafi 'i does not consider an illegitimate > daughter unlawful.** But the very idea is repugnant that one should > marry a girl about whom one has the knowledge that she is of one's own > seed. > > Tafsir Al Maududi 4:23 If this is true, why did Imam Al Shafi'i permit it. On what basis from the Qur'an and Sunnah? Or was it simply ijtihad?

I am married and have a daughter. Initially, to keep my wife happy, I lived with her in her parents' house. However, over time, she has become increasingly lazy and disobedient towards me, prioritizing her parents' wishes over mine. She now refuses to live with me in our own home but still asks for financial support. While I provide monthly nafkah for her, I'm considering limiting additional expenses since she's not living with me. Should I continue giving her all the money she asks for, or just the monthly support while she stays with her parents?

Assalamu Aleykum Wa Rahmatullahi Wa Barakatuhu is it Haram to open cases(loot boxes) in games without buying them(spending any money real or in game) in game you get free case(loot box) if you play well enough, so i wanted to know, if we are allowed to open this cases or it's still considered Haram (gambling or the random factor or anything else) or in other game you play good you get random reward, to open it you must click a few times, then you will get something random, again is it gambling? im not buying anything, just free gifts, but im worried about the 'chance' of winning something

I was studying a marriage/divorce fiqh and one situation got into my mind and I couldn't find any answers to it in the internet, so I thought it will be heplful to ask it here and get an answer, so if anyone gets into this situation they will know an answer. As I know, if a couple get divorced, they need to wait for 3 periods (iddah) and after that the divorce will be finalized and during this period husband should keep providing for his wife. But what if the initiator was the wife, for example: it's not surprising in the modern world if the wife lefts his husband (moving to another country, doesn't want to live with him anymore, lefts to the parents and e.t.c.) and is demanding for a divorce. In such situation there is no option for a husband left other than give the divorce and there is no blame for the husband to do it, obviously, but one question everyone is forgetting in such situation is what about providing during this period? Because if he's not an initiator and they don't live together anymore, does he need to keep providing for her during this period? Because obviously providing while living together and not living together are two different things (economically and spiritually).

Can I **marry** my *mother’s* sister’ daughter according to Islam.

Today's Artificial intelligence are capable of doing what human can do (playing chess , chatbot) . But to which limit an artificial intelligence is considered haram ? For example , creating a sentience artificial general intelligence which is capable of being a living thing , is it considered haram ? how about artificial intelligence with eye(camera) and ear(microphone) but only can do specific task such as playing chess , chatbot , ect ?

Assalamu allaikum wa rahmatullahi wa barakatuh. Question: How do I wash off the najasah from my body? Everyone says that it should be washed off, but how exactly? Will it be enough to take a handful of water and pour it on the area and wipe it off? Will this water not spread the najasa?

assalamualaikum, everywhere in the world if someone wants to be a pilot, then He or She must have a valid class 1 medical test assessment. And there is a medical test in class 1 called "Naked body check" where the candidates have to show their private parts for few seconds to the airforce Doctor, so will it be a sin if someone shows their private part to the Doctor of the same Gender?for medical test? There will be only 1 doctor who will check the private part without touching.

If so, would that mean that we’re copying pagans? I remember hearing a while ago about some man that twisted the abrahamic beliefs in Arabia and that’s why the pagans did this, is it true? Can anyone explain this to me?

I want to buy books and movies from sites that are only specific to certain areas. I want to pay but I can't. When I use VPN I can access those page and buy. Sites like *hotstar*, *popcornflix*, etc. Is it haram to use VPN, since I ain't pirating, I am buying.

like touching and as we know that women's can take of their hijab in front of small kids as their kids but not in front of big boys.at what age does a boy cannot touch a girl anymore.

While I know that Islam [allow a man to marry four wives at the same time](https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/76/167) , it prohibited men from marrying specific women, such as mother. My question is, who are those women that are prohibited for a man? And are they prohibited forever? Thanks in advance.

Salam alaykum, i have a major doubt right now. It's verse 5 in Surah Mulk: And indeed, We adorned the lowest heaven with lamps, and made them for stoning devils, for whom We have also prepared the torment of the Blaze. Now, i am aware that this doesn't say that it's the stars itselves that are thrown. My doubt is that it reads to me that meteors originate from stars, which is obviously wrong. And every tafseer that i read said the same. They always said that meteors are taken from "the fire of the stars". Only Ibn Katheer wasn't sure i think. Can anyone explain, or show a tafseer that says that meteors are not caused by stars?

Assalamu Alaikum, I have been offered a position as a Senior Software Developer at PayPay Corporation, and I am seeking guidance on whether it is permissible (Halal) to work there. PayPay is a Japanese company that develops electronic payment services. The company offers QR code and bar code-based payment services, enabling users to make payments using their mobile devices. JazakAllah Khair for your guidance. https://about.paypay.ne.jp/en/

Did Zahiri Madhab originate in the Salaf era? Can we follow some rules?

I came across a few claims about surah 5:52: > That is why We ordained for the Children of Israel that whoever takes > a life—unless as a punishment for murder or mischief in the land—it > will be as if they killed all of humanity; and whoever saves a life, > it will be as if they saved all of humanity.1 ˹Although˺ Our > messengers already came to them with clear proofs, many of them still > transgressed afterwards through the land. What ive heard these people claim is that “mischief” in this case, relates to disobeying allah, which, to them, means that muslims should kill all non muslims But didnt muslims go along fine with non muslims(that didnt attack/oppress them) in the past? With them even being allowed to live among them? Is this really what it means? I cant imagine it being taken in the way these people frame it as? Can someone help me with this?

Is it correct that as per their holy book every human being on earth is "Kafir" (a person who rejected Islam) and need to accept Islam or die (not worth living). Many counties in past and future going to be converted into 100% or in majority a Muslim nation.

As far as I know, Sunni and Shia share some common hadiths. Is there any book that compiles all those common hadith?