What is the sign on Alif? How to read it?

What is the purpose of the diamond mark printed in surah Yusuf verse 11?

There are some sources about tajweed rules and learning them is recommended. But what is tajweed? Is it a set of rules for only reading Quran or general for Arabic? I learned the Arabic alphabets and can read Quran. What does tajweed add to just knowing the alphabet? Is learning tajweed just a recommendation or a necessity?

Assalamu alaikum. I am learning how to read Arrabic alphabets and how to read Quran. I'm slightly confused with something: In the first verse of Sura Al-Faatiha, the spelling suggests the following reading > Bismi Allahi alrahmani alraheemi. But the actual reading that I heard from many recitations are like > Bismi-lla(h)i-lrahmani-raheem. So the 'al' was connected really fast, almost indistinguishable to my ear. And the 'i' in the end of 'alraheemi' was omitted. ____ My second example is the third verse of Al-Faatiha, which looks to me like > Maliki yawmi aldiyni But in the recitations it was like > Maliki yawmi-diyn So again 'al' was connected really fast and 'i' in the end was omitted. ____ Please help me understand the correct way to read the suras (I guess the word is tajweed), or point me toward some references. Thank you very much.

I was always taught that the laa (لا) symbol meant "Never stop here", and that any recitation would need to continue through it as if it was one phrase. So, for example (taken from the break between [Surah Ya-Sin 79 and 80](https://legacy.quran.com/36/79-80)) As I was taught, this would **always** be recited as **"...`aliimullathii...**", with no break between it. And that if I do catch myself pausing at that point and needing to continue the recitation, I should always back up a few words so I could properly recite the entire thing without pausing, as otherwise I could inadvertently be changing the meaning of the verse into something Islamically unacceptable. However, I have come to be told that there is a difference of opinion regarding this mark in the case of it being above a circle, which I was unaware of. It was definitely not how I was taught, and most English-language resources for reading the Qur'an that I can easily dig up (e.g. https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/4130/22) confirm that it just means "Do not stop, period." and don't mention any difference of opinion in that regard. So the question lies, in the hopes of making this a comprehensive canonical reference, how should the laa (لا) mark be interpreted when reciting the Qur'an? What does it mean, why is it important, and what differences of opinion are there regarding it?

Anyone familiar with this particular reciter (Qari) may be Egyptian based on pronunciation. For certainly, I'd like to know. Could you please inform me his name and where I can locate the links to his recitation videos on YouTube full Surah? Anywhere on the internet audio files? Thank you. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IloWk2YTz-s

In Tajweed, especially in this [YouTube Channel](https://www.youtube.com/@Arabic101) , it is emphasized that some sounds should be lengthened up to 4 seconds. I am not a linguist, and I am not a historian. Yet I know many languages in different levels (Persian, English, a little French, Quranic Arabic, Kurdi, Turkish), and in none of them, there is this concept of elongation of sounds. And while I fear Allah and don't want to be a critic, it seems strange to me to think of Arabs contemporary to our Prophet (PBUH) who would speak with sounds that take 4 seconds to pronounce. This makes me suspicious of the Tajweed rules altogether. Can someone please explain where this comes from and how we can trust that it's true?

I had to ask this question because exegists are in disagreement about the waqf in the verse 7 of chapter 3 whether the waqf is after "الا للہ" or "والراسخون فی العلم". The slight shifting of this waqf changes the meaning of ayah altogether. I have read tafseer of Ibn Kathir in which he tried to explain that may be this is due to different understanding of word "تاویل" leading the scholars towards different opinions. So were the rules of stopping developed later? Are there other similar instances in the Qur'an as well?

As salamou aleykoum. I am a little confused with a situation. Days ago, I started skipping a mosque that's about 70m from my home for another another that's about 600m. The reason is that in the nearest mosque the prayer is not done the way I think it should be. The Imam is too fast (as fast as you cannot understand the recitation unless you knew it). Plus they recite fatiha together (and louder for fajir, magrib and icha) after the taslim. Furthermore there's a man who loudly repeats the takbir of the Imam (as if there's a reason (current cut or mics failure) to do it). I started skipping it without searching if it's allowed or not. So I am coming here and hoping for help. Thank you.

I've read Surah Yasin many times, but recently I got curious about a symbol in the Surah. I tried to find a solution in Internet by searching Tajweed rules: I found something similar but I am not sure if it refers to the same symbol. This is an image of the symbol I'm asking about:

What exactly is the diamond mark printed in some mushafs in Surah Hud, verse 41, under the ra in "majrahaa"? Does this change the pronunciation?

I have heard that there are two Tareeqs in Hafs 'an Aasim to pronouncing this word. What are those Tareeqs, and how exactly to pronounce it? Also, what is Ishmam, should it be done at the beginning, middle, or end of the noon in تَأۡمَ۬نَّا, and how long should it be done in the letter (i.e. briefly or throughout the letter)? Also, is it incorrect to recite the word plainly تَأۡمَنَّا with no special pronounciation? I couldn't find much clear English information on this online, so I am asking it here in hopes it can be clarified and there is a reference for people.

I know not following Makharij in Quran recitation changes the meaning. But, is Madd, Gunnah in Tajweed for beautification of Quran recitation only?? Or it changes the meaning also in arabic not following those rules?? As far as I know tajweed is not followed in regular Arabic conversation.

In sura 99 (az zalzalah) many of the ayats end on the letter haa, however upon listening to a few recitations, all recitors pronounce the haa, eg first aya: > زِلۡزَالَهَا "...zilzalaha" instead of "...zilzalah" without the extra syllable at the end. Furthermore, when listening to another sura, sura Bayyina (sura 98), within the sixth aya there is a pause on the word "feeha": > إِنَّ ٱلَّذِينَ كَفَرُواْ مِنۡ أَهۡلِ ٱلۡكِتَـٰبِ وَٱلۡمُشۡرِكِينَ فِى نَارِ جَهَنَّمَ خَـٰلِدِينَ فِيہَآ‌ۚ أُوْلَـٰٓٮِٕكَ هُمۡ شَرُّ ٱلۡبَرِيَّةِ "Inna l-lazeena kafaru min ahli l-kitaabi wa l-mushrikeena fee nari jahannama khaalideena feeha; ulaa-ika hum sharru l-bareeyah" (taken from Quran411). All the recitations I have listened to pronounce it as "... khaalideena feeha" not "...khaalideena feeh" (with a soft h sound). My question is do I always have to pronounce the extra syllable when ending on a haa. From what I understand, if the last letter before pausing has a fatha then we should replace it with a sukoon (for example sura 114 second aya "... khalaq" not "khalaqa") however perhaps this does not apply for the letter haa? I simply do not understand. I know this many seem like a very small issue of mine however I am trying to learn how to read the quran and am not sure if it is just a general rule to pronounce the letter haa. Thank you in advance!

I was reciting Surah Al Bqarah verse 256, at one point there is لا/قف and on other mushaf there is صلے لا means stop is prohibited While صلے means stop is preferable. I am so confused, please if someone can guide me. It happened earlier in one ayat earlier as well. 

I have noticed from my pakistani teachers not teaching the letters of Al-Hams and some even advising not doing an exasperation when there is a sukoon on the letter (example tabbath pakistani reciter ) , whereas my Arab teachers teach that it is required in tajweed ([\[example tabbath arab reciter mishary\]][3] ). Does there exist a difference of opinion on this issue? Riwayat: Hafs 'an Asim

In the famous King Fahd Complex Uthmānī Madīnah Muṣḥaf, Allāh is written with the following diacritics: Source: https://read.quranexplorer.com/2/7/7/Usmani/Mishari-Rashid/Hide/Tajweed-OFF In the Indo-Pāk Muṣḥaf, Allāh is written with the following diacritics: Source: https://read.quranexplorer.com/2/7/7/IndoPak/Mishari-Rashid/Hide/Tajweed-OFF In this question, I am only concerned with the difference between fatḥah (in the Uthmānī script) and superscript alif (in the Indo-Pāk script) on the lām. According to the Tajwīd rules of both scripts, the fatḥah and superscript alif are supposed to produce different elongations, the former is supposed to be shorter while the latter is supposed to be elongated. It seems that according to the Uthmānī script, the "la" is supposed to be kept short (as in Al-lah), while according to the Indo-Pak script, the "la" is supposed to be elongated (as in Al-laah). My question is, according to Tajwīd rules, which version of diacritics is more correct in terms of the accurate pronunciation of the word Allāh? And is there any reason why the potentially less correct version chose the diacritics of Allāh as they did? There must be some reasoning behind it, due to the painstaking amount of research, effort, artistry, and calligraphy involved in designing each word and letter in the Muṣḥaf. For instance, if one sees the work and years spent in writing the Madīnah Muṣḥaf (here , and here ), a potential error in the diacritics of Allāh has to be intentional and not mistaken. What could be the reason behind selecting them as they are? Is there any official explanation available? Thank you and jazākAllāhu khairā for your guidance.

I want to learn correct pronunciation of the هُوَ اللَّهُ الَّذي لا إِلٰهَ إِلّا هُوَ (59/22). Go to this link for related verse . If we want to stop in first part, according to tajweed rules (Al-Madd Al-‘Aarid), last word is pronounced with Jazm like that: هُوْ (huv) . But teachers stop like that هُ (hû) . it means without sounds letter و. You can listen this verse from teachers (like him ), he does not sound letter وَ. Others teachers also does not sound it. Why letter وَ is not read? What is the rule of it? I research a lot of Tajweed (quran reading rules) but I could not find the rule of it. Can anyone tell the rules with sources? (This example also exists in surah al-Baqarah (2/255): اللّهُ لاَ إِلَـهَ إِلاَّ هُوَ. Teachers does not sound last letter وَ in first stop part.)

I do not understand Arabic at all. Is memorizing Quran easier if you know the Arabic language? If so should I learn Arabic first before starting to memorize the Surahs of the Quran. What is the best approach? [**Please Note**: I would like to get an expert advise from a Hafiz who's mother tongue is not Arabic. Such a person best suits my situation. Not just answers based on personal opinions] By the way is there a way to authenticate such an answer ?

I heard from an Ustaz (may Allah preserve him) that madd is only one sound (sawt), and it is wrong to play with the sound (by making the sound higher or lower while making madd), like that of Yasser Al-Dossari ([listen to his madd from here] [1] ). This is surprising because Yasser is the imam of the Al-Haram. But does that make it haram or makruh to make madd like him?