If I look at youtube, an imam may recite a surah X from ayah a to b, or surah Y from ayah c to d during a salat. For example Al Baqarah from ayah 153 - 158, Humazah from ayah 1 - 9, or Ash Shu'ara from ayah 86 - 104, etc. Where do we learn this ? How do we know that we can recite Al Baqarah 153 - 158, and not 157 - 159, or 151 - 155 ? If I look at either the quran.com or quranwbw.com, there is no symbol whatsoever that indicate it.

I am not a native Arabic speaker so I am trying to improve my recitations by memorising. I recently started correcting my pronunciations of the Surahs I recite during Salat. Sometimes I forget to recite the correct version so I recite it all over again. As sometimes I don’t immediately realise the mistake, but after I’ve already recited more verses. What should I do in such situation? Is it okay that I am repeating the Surah? Should I perform Sahu Sijdah ?

According to Islam, human beings have a duty to seek the truth—both spiritual and moral—and to use reason to recognize the oneness of God (Tawhid). Refusing to seek the truth, deliberately ignoring evidence, or remaining in ignorance when there is an opportunity to learn is considered a failure in one’s responsibility before God. > Surah 17:36 : Do not follow what you have no ˹sure˺ knowledge of. Indeed, all will be called to account for ˹their˺ hearing, sight, and intellect. With that in mind, I propose an intellectual exercise to all Muslims who may read this. > **Premise 1:** God is the most perfect being conceivable, possessing absolute perfection in all aspects, including love, which must be absolute and unconditional. > **Premise 2:** The Qur'an describes Allah’s love as conditional and partial, extending only to those who believe and behave in specific ways. > **Premise 3:** A being whose love is conditional and partial cannot be considered morally perfect. > **Premise 4:** In Christianity, God (through Christ) demonstrates absolute and unconditional love, loving even His enemies and offering love and forgiveness to all. > **Premise 5:** A being that demonstrates absolute and unconditional love is morally more perfect than one whose love is conditional and partial. > **Conclusion:** Therefore, the concept of God presented in Islam (Allah) does not represent the path to truth, as it lacks the absolute moral perfection found in the Christian concept of God. Now, I will proceed to explain each premise. **Explanation of Premise 1:** Beginning with the classical definition of God as the supreme and absolutely perfect being, it follows that all His attributes must be perfect and without flaw. This includes moral perfection, where love is considered the highest expression of goodness. Thus, for God to be truly perfect, His love must be total, absolute, and unconditional, without restrictions or limitations on its scope. **Explanation of Premise 2:** In the Qur'an, for example, Surah 3:32 states that Allah does not love those who disbelieve (see source ). This demonstrates that Allah’s love is subject to specific conditions, extending only to those who meet certain criteria of faith and behavior. In other words, divine love in Islam is not universal but selective, based on adherence to prescribed beliefs and practices. **Explanation of Premise 3:** Moral perfection entails the absence of partiality and conditions in the expression of love and goodness. If a being’s love is limited by conditions and does not extend equally to all, this reflects a moral imperfection. Therefore, if Allah’s love is conditional, this contradicts the notion of absolute moral perfection expected of a supreme being like God. **Explanation of Premise 4:** When contrasting Islamic teachings with Christian teachings, one finds that Christ demonstrated unconditional love for all humanity, including those who wronged Him. For example, His plea on the cross, “Father, forgive them, for they do not know what they are doing,” and the teachings of the Sermon on the Mount highlight this universal and unconditional love, emphasizing that divine love in Christianity is truly absolute and perfect. **Explanation of Premise 5:** When comparing the moral attributes of both divine concepts, unconditional love represents a higher degree of moral perfection. A being that demonstrates unrestricted, unconditional love reflects a superior goodness and perfection compared to a being whose love is limited. Therefore, the Christian God, who loves unconditionally, is morally more perfect than the Islamic concept of Allah, whose love is conditional.

Verses 1-3 of Surah At-Tariq talk about a star. Here's the translation of the verses as per The Clear Quran by Dr. Mustafa Khattab: > 1 By the heaven and the nightly star! > 2 And what will make you realize what the nightly star is? > 3 It is the star of piercing brightness. > > — [At-Tariq 1-3](https://legacy.quran.com/86/1-3) * **By the heaven and the nightly star!** ==> In this verse, Allah SWT swears in the name of the heavens and a nightly star. * **And what will make you realize what the nightly star is?** ==> In this verse, Allah SWT rhetorically asks Prophet Muhammad what will he know about the nightly star. * **It is the star of piercing brightness.** ==> In this verse, Allah SWT goes on to explain what the nightly star is. He explains that it is a star which is very bright. Nowhere in the above verses it is talking about Pulsars. I checked all the translations of the above three verses and nowhere it is mentioned about the star that resembles pulsars. When I looked more into it, it seems that the word "Tariq" is used to show that it is referring to pulsars as "Tariq" in Arabic means "morning star" or "he who knocks at the door in the morning". Other meanings include "striker", "knocker", "visitor", and "bright star" and people are referring to this particular meaning i.e. "knocker" to link it with Pulsars but it looks like making a vague try to link the Quran with scientific findings by Muslim people. If I go by the definition of this word, "Tariq" also means "morning star" but in the Quran, it's mentioned as "nightly star", then which one is correct? Can someone please explain how people have come to the conclusion that this verse talks about pulsars specifically? Is this true to any extent?

Anyone familiar with this particular reciter (Qari) may be Egyptian based on pronunciation. For certainly, I'd like to know. Could you please inform me his name and where I can locate the links to his recitation videos on YouTube full Surah? Anywhere on the internet audio files? Thank you. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IloWk2YTz-s

I came across a few claims about surah 5:52: > That is why We ordained for the Children of Israel that whoever takes > a life—unless as a punishment for murder or mischief in the land—it > will be as if they killed all of humanity; and whoever saves a life, > it will be as if they saved all of humanity.1 ˹Although˺ Our > messengers already came to them with clear proofs, many of them still > transgressed afterwards through the land. What ive heard these people claim is that “mischief” in this case, relates to disobeying allah, which, to them, means that muslims should kill all non muslims But didnt muslims go along fine with non muslims(that didnt attack/oppress them) in the past? With them even being allowed to live among them? Is this really what it means? I cant imagine it being taken in the way these people frame it as? Can someone help me with this?

If I understand correctly, the Quran is held to be the words given to Mohammed by God over a series of visits from the angel Gabriel, which were then dictated to scribes and eventually written down. * Why is the Quran divided into the 114 surahs? * Does each surah represent a single revelation to Mohammed by God, that is, a single visit from the angel Gabriel, and the words of the surah are simply a direct transcription of what the angel Gabriel said? * Or, is the organization into surah "man-made", something that came later?

It is well known that in surat al-Mujadilah (58) in each verse the name of Allah الله is quoted. I think that similarly it is possible that many surah's of the Quran may include in each verse the name of Allah or a synonym -meaning one of Allah's beautiful names- and I'd like to have a list of these surah's!

We know that in Quran the surahs are ordered in a certain way, but the chronological order of the revelation of the surahs is different. (One can see that in here .) My questions are: 1) Are ayahs inside a surah ordered according to revelation of them? 2) Surahs have a revelation order. But was it the case that one surah was revealed completely? In other words, were the ayahs revealed randomly and later composed in particular surahs the way scholars saw fit? 3) Did prophet Muhammed (PBUH) approved or had any say about the present composition/structure of the entire book? Additionally I am interested to know the process of collecting and ordering the ayahs/surahs to the present format.

Asalamu Alaykum, I have recently come across verse 16:26 in the Quran and I would like to understand the wisdom behind it. “Those before them had already plotted, but Allah came at their building from the foundations, so the roof fell upon them from above them, and the punishment came to them from where they did not perceive.” I would be very grateful if somebody could explain to me Allah’s wisdom in stating that roof fell from above them because I thought that was already implied. Any help with greatly be appreciated. JazakAllah.

In my college classes, I am studying the Quran and I've noticed that the "We" pronoun used by Allah is typically seen as the "Royal We," but I cannot seem to find that sense of the word prior to the 11th century and further, I cannot find نحن (nahnu) to ever be used in the singular sense by contemporaries of Muhammed; especially in his cultural context. Even the Semitic relative Hebrew term נַחְנוּ (also pronounced nahnu), is always utilized in the plural. I was just hoping someone could help provide me with insight and resources in studying this (preferably works of antiquity written within a century of Muhammed.) With my utmost respect, I thank you all for your time.

I have several times read in, probably, right wing, media that the motivation for the Muslim veil (and general requirement that women must not "show skin") is sexist towards men. IIRC, the reasoning usually goes something like this: there are suras, verses or sunnahs (or other sources of similar importance) that suggest that women need to cover up in general, and with a veil in particular, because otherwise men won't be able to control their lust. Is this true? In what sources is this prescribed? Are there any "counter-claims"?

I was reading [The Meaning of The Glorious Qu'ran](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Meaning_of_the_Glorious_Koran) and it said: > *Though ascribed always to Al-Madinah, tradition says that it was actually revealed in Makkah during the days the Prophet spent there when he made his farewell pilgrimage.* > > *The Meaning of The Glorious Qu'ran by Muhammad Marmaduke Pickthall* **Question:** Where does this tradition come from/originate?

In Surah Bakarah:259 > "Or ˹are you not aware of˺ the one who passed by a city which was in ruins. He wondered, “How could Allah bring this back to life after its destruction?” So Allah caused him to die for a hundred years then brought him back to life. Allah asked, “How long have you remained ˹in this state˺?” He replied, “Perhaps a day or part of a day.” Allah said, “No! You have remained here for a hundred years! Just look at your food and drink—they have not spoiled. ˹But now˺ look at ˹the remains of˺ your donkey! And ˹so˺ We have made you into a sign for humanity. And look at the bones ˹of the donkey˺, how We bring them together then clothe them with flesh!”. When this was made clear to him, he declared, “˹Now˺ I know that Allah is Most Capable of everything.” (Dr. Mustafa Khattab, the Clear Quran") According to islamic source, this story is attributed to Uzair. But I can not find the reason or proof around attributing the story to Uzair. Can someone give me some source reasoning the attribution of the story to Uzair?

I have heard reading surahs in reverse order but what does this actually mean? Reading the actual surah backwards, or reading a surah and the ones before it in that order? I've already tried finding the answer but unfortunately no help.

There was a sahabi who got very ill after he read a Surah I want to know the name of the Sahabi the name of the Surah too I don’t intent to do anything wrong it’s just a quiz I was asked I wonder what is the answer to it jazakallah

All the lists I have found concerning the traditional order of revelation say the first surah was Alaq (96), and the second, after the long silence, was Qalam (68). But the biographies and tafsirs I have found say that Ad-Dhuha (93) marked the end of the long silence. The lists say Ad-Dhuha was the 11th surah, not the 2nd. Is there a way to reconcile this disagreement? Is there any authority that is widely considered correct among Muslims? *Footnote*: Biographies such as "Muhammad: His Life Based on The Earliest Sources" by Martin Lings -- he draws a lot from Ibn Ishaq, although not exclusively. Tafsirs such as "[Tafhim al-Qur'an](http://www.englishtafsir.com/) " by Sayyid Abul Ala Maududi, although [Ibn Kathir](http://www.qtafsir.com) doesn't comment, as far as I can tell.

Salam, I was wondering basically Surah Mulk saves you from the torment of the grave if read before passing away. If you read and blow on a non-Muslim would that count as reading it and will the effect be the same on a non-Muslim?

I have read that we are NOT allowed to read the Quran when on menses but I have a question. I know that surah Mulk protects you from the punishment of the grave if u recite it every night and I do read it every night before I sleep other than when I’m on my menses. So even if I don’t read it while on menses if it’s not allowed will I still be saved from the punishment of the grave? Also are we actually not allowed to recite the Quran pak even from our phones while on menses?

Ok. I know Al Baqarah 2:34 but there is something that feels wrong. Allah ordered angels to prostrate after Hz Adam but The Iblees isn't a angel? I have learned there is an rule in Arabic called Taqleeb (I like to see Quran as a... "Poetry Book" but the weirdness of Arabic makes me confused) but couldnt find it anywhere on the net from somewhere like a Arabic dictionary. I want an explanation about the verse itself and the name of that Arabic writing rule.