Language of the Qur'an

I want to know how the Arabic language explains this verse Surah Isra verse 1 "Glory be to the One Who took His servant ˹Muḥammad˺ by night from the Sacred Mosque to the Farthest Mosque whose surroundings We have blessed, so that We may show him some of Our signs. Indeed, He alone is the All-Hearing, All-Seeing." Initially Allah swt refers to himself in the third person (glory be to the one who-) and then later refers to himself as We (the royal we in English) which switches to first person and then later addresses himself again in the third person saying "he is the all hearing" , Can anyone who speaks arabic explain this because in English it would be odd. The simplest conclusion would be to assume that in "we may show **him** -" and "indeed **he** is the all hearing" both are referring to same person , can someone explain why this is not the case