It is commonly believed that if someone leaves Islam, by Sharia law the punishment is death. Is that true? I have heard some different opinions. Dr. Zakir Naik was once asked a similar question and he responded that the punishment is death only if you tarnish Islam image in public and are publically against it. In that scenario the situation is similar to a revolt against an Army and hence punishment in that case is death. However, Islam is not an Army but a religion. What is the correct verdict in this regard?

With All due respect, the ruling in the Maliki madhab with regards to hadd on an unmarried pregnant woman (her pregnancy being proof)seems very unjust if she was truly raped. How could such an individual provide ample evidence for being raped? It would be difficult, especially in the past. The other 3 madhahib have proof from the Sunnah & accept verbal proof even, for the Malikiyya, I’ve come a cross a statement of Imam Maalik & so on(No Hadith reference). What proof do they use for this ruling? The statement of Imām Mālik seems very harsh and inconsiderate considering how serious the hadd is. In the Sunnah it’s clear that postponing the punishment for Zina is practiced, and it doesn’t seem so from the statement of Mālik & co.

Last night I was reading answers on islam. Stack exchange and abu hayyan quotes Hasan al basri. > Al-Hassan al basri said: "If a man discovers that his (christian or Jewish) wife is committing an immoral act, he should divorce her." https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/86434/meaning-of-the-word-al-muhsanat-in-verse-55-according-to-the-zahiri-school It appears from the opinion of al Hasan al basri that punishment for dhimmi adulterers is not rajm. Hence my question what's the punishment for dhimmis who commit adultery?

What is the punishment in this world for stealing from one's parents.

From what stage is it considered adultery with a married woman? I mean from the time she entered here man's house or from the time she agreed to be his wife and still didn't enter his house?

From this question https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/4205/17163 , the OP writes: > **It is agreed upon that piracy is theft** according to the question Where does Islam stand on Internet Piracy? I'm respectfully contesting this claim in this question in the context of fiqh. **Question**: Is piracy a form of theft for the purposes of fiqh? In anticipation of answers which don't carefully read the question, *I'm not contesting whether or not piracy is halal/haram*; I'm contesting whether or not it's classed as theft (which may result in hadd punishment ) or something else (not necessarily requiring hadd punishment). The answers to the question Where does Islam stand on Internet Piracy? are all of the form "someone on the Internet said so" (specifically, "...this becomes copyright infringement, or stealing", "...it is still considered stealing" and "...you are not stealing anything"). Consequently, **I'm looking for authoritative sources**, e.g., fatawa. (Please back up responses and refrain from adding yet another "someone on the Internet said so" answer.) ---- Online fatawa generally seem to refrain from calling it theft. Here's what I've found via Google: - Islam Q&A 81614 quotes from fiqh councils; they declare it impermissible, but do not declare it theft. Indeed, they even go so far as to write: > Some of our scholars think that it is haraam to do this (copy things) for the purpose of selling them, but if a person makes a copy just for himself, that is permissible. In other words, "some of our scholars" argue that it's halal for personal use, and therefore is not considered theft (which is haram). - IslamWeb 132937 , 305998 , 326746 , 327097 also refrain from describing it as theft, instead using the far more tempered description "...the opinion adopted at Islamweb is that copyright ... are recognized and protected by the sharee'ah". - AskImam 949 , 25083 likewise refrains from calling it theft, with 949 even quoting Mufti Taqi Uthmani 's description of the attitudes of a "group of contemporary scholars": > ...there is no precedent in the Holy Qur'an, in the Sunnah or in the juristic views of the earlier Muslim jurists where an intangible object has been subjected to private ownership or to sale and purchase. They further argue that 'knowledge' in Islam is not the a property of an individual, nor can he prevent others form acquiring knowledge, whereas the concept of 'intellectual property' leads to the monopoly of some individuals' knowledge, which can never be accepted by Islam. - IslamQA.org: DarulUloomTT.org , AskImam 15940 , AskImam 19162 also refrain from calling it theft. Moreover, another fatwa listed on IslamQA.org writes: > In our understanding, copyrighting (attaching the clause of copyright) in itself is an act of oppression and injustice. -- Muftionline.co.za I found a single terse fatwa on IslamQA Darulifta-Deoband.org which described it as theft: > ...a lot of piracy takes place and piracy is a kind of theft and it is considered illegal but still it takes [place]... Is it allowed or not in Islamic view? > ... > Theft is not allowed in these matters also. The following searches returned no hits: site:askamufti.com piracy, site:fatwa-online.com piracy, site:sunnipath.com piracy. **Keep in mind that my search was limited to English-language fatawa.** ---- This question is related to: - https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/29576/17163 and https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/16670/17163 , which asks about justifications for software piracy, - https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/20219/17163 , which asks how bad software piracy is (which didn't get answered quantitatively); this question here is more specific, - https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/18762/17163 , https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/23611/17163 , https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/34761/17163 , which ask in the context of books - https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/13168/17163 I found several other answers on Islam.SE which again take the form of "someone on the Internet said so": - https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/11772/17163 , where one of the answers described software piracy as "basically stealing" and another said "piracy is theft". - Regarding https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/600/17163 , the top answers write "Piracy is stealing, plain and simple" and "Obviously, piracy is stealing by definition". - The answer to https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/4205/17163 writes "this kind of theft is not like normal theft". (And a recent Islam.SE user comment indicated surprise at my attitude that "piracy" is a crime distinct from "theft".)

Asslamoalikum to all of my brothers and sisters My question is that **if people commit zina at very early age (8-12 or basically under 18), will there be punishment of those of 100 lashes?** And by the way just s*cking b**bs or l*ck*ing v*gina is considered zina or when a person loses his/her virginity before marriage is considered zina or both things considered zina.

Why did the Prophet order to cut off the hands and feet of the people who killed the shepherd? > Narrated Anas bin Malik: Al-bukhari 5727 > > Some people from the tribes of Ukl and Uraina came to Allah's > Messenger (ﷺ) and embraced Islam and said, "O Allah's Messenger (ﷺ)! > We are owners of livestock and have never been farmers," and they > found the climate of Medina unsuitable for them. So Allah's Messenger > (ﷺ) ordered that they be given some camels and a shepherd, and ordered > them to go out with those camels and drink their milk and urine. So > they set out, but when they reached a place called Al-Harra, they > reverted to disbelief after their conversion to Islam, killed the > shepherd and drove away the camels. When this news reached the Prophet > (ﷺ) he sent in their pursuit (and they were caught and brought). The > Prophet (ﷺ) ordered that their eyes be branded with heated iron bars > and their hands be cut off, and they were left at Al-Harra till they > died in that state.

Is it correct that there is a consensus that the chastity of a slave girl and her master is not established and even if she gives birth to children of her master unlike where chastity of husband and wife is established due to Nikah? [١٢٠/ ٢] التسري لا يحصل به إحصان للسيد، ولا إحصان للأمة. - موسوعة الإجماع في الفقه الإسلامي **(Note: I have provided heading only under which whole matter of ijma is discussed in the source)** Though In Qur'an Allah says > **And they who guard their private parts.** > > **Except from their wives or those their right hands possess, for indeed, they will not be blamed -** > - Surah Muminoon 5-6 Correct me If I understood it wrong

Could anyone please explain this to me? Does it mean if the man then forcefully has sex with her, he won't be punished? Or only in terms of consentual? Is this authentic? > “If a person’s slave-girl commits a deliberate crime against some > other person, then the person who has suffered the crime commits > adultery with her, he is not subject to any legal penalty."

I was asked this by an Apostate. He wanted to know what the evidence is that an Apostate can evade execution by repenting and returning to Islam. I know this is the judgement of the madhahib and Umar ra did this with the Iraqi apostates but this did not satisfy him. Is there any evidence from Quran or Sunnah that the apostate is permitted to return to Islam and thus avoid execution? Verses about Allah being all merciful are important but in this case I am not sure if they are evidence the Apostate should be able to evade execution, perhaps it would mean Allah has forgiven the Apostate on the basis of his execution being the expiation, so his Repentance would help him from the punishment of the Afterlife but not from the legal penalty, just as a thief cannot escape the penalty for theft by repenting. On the other hand, it could also be argued that the victim of theft can waive the penalty for the thief, and Apostasy which is a crime against Allah can also be waived by Allah. Because of this uncertainty, I would prefer it if the answers did not invoke Allah’s mercy as the proof an Apostate can escape his penalty by repentance unless they can prove these verses can be applied to waiving the apostasy penalty.

Assalamu Aleykum I have a question is it permissable to wear the cut hand of a thief like a necklace because i Fund this vers often in hadiths like Musannaf ibn abi shaybah 30915 and many Other Scholars agreed with that.

Who implements the punishment of Qisas or Hadd if the convict is a slave? Is it Master of Slave or a person appointed by the Qadhi? **Specifically Want to Know the position of Hanbali Madhab.**

Sahih Muslim Book 17, Number 4221 > Abu Huraira reported that Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him) was asked about the slave-woman who committed adultery and was not protected (married). He said: If she commits adultery, then flog her and if she commits adultery again, then flog her and then sell her even for a rope. Are 4 witnesses required for slaves?

Assalamu alaikum, Why isn’t a women’s testimony accepted in cases where a Hadd punishment is involved, or taken into account for the Hadd punishment?

In Sahih Muslim 1676a, it says > 'Abdullah (b. Mas'ud) reported Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) as saying: It is not permissible to take the life of a Muslim who bears testimony (to the fact that there is no god but Allah, and I am the Messenger of Allah, but in one of the three cases: the married adulterer, a life for life, and the deserter of his Din (Islam), abandoning the community. This means a Muslim can only be killed for three reasons 1) adultery 2) murder 3) apostasy Howeve in Sunan an Nasa’i 5661 it says > It was narrated that Ibn 'Umar and a number of the Companions of Muhammad ﷺ said "The Messenger of Allah ﷺ said: 'Whoever drinks Khamr, whip him; then if he drinks (again), whip him; then if he drinks (again), whip him; then if he drinks (again), kill him.'" Isn’t that a contradiction?

Islam has a law whereby false accusation of adultery is punished: > Those who accuse chaste women ˹of adultery˺ and fail to produce four > witnesses, give them eighty lashes ˹each˺. And do not ever accept any > testimony from them—for they are indeed the rebellious https://quran.com/24/4 Does this law also apply to non-Muslims living under Shariah law?

Al-Shawkaani said: It was narrated from Abu’l-Zinaad from his father that the fuqaha’ of the people of Madeenah used to say that no one should carry out any of the hadd punishments except the ruler, **unless** it is a man carrying out the hadd punishment for zina on his male or female slave. Nayl al-Awtaar, 7/295, 296. https://islamqa.info/en/answers/8980/who-is-the-one-who-should-carry-out-the-hadd-punishment-for-zina Usually if one did zina, the case is analysed and witnesses will be assessed by the state to give hudud. But is it the same when it comes to a slave doing zina? The quote above seems to imply that the state is not involved in giving the hudud punishments on the slave and it is only the owner who decides. What if the owner is unjust?

Is there any reports/narrations, fiqhi opinions or sharia manuals which mention the punishment for necrophilia in Islamic law if there is one?

Has there any reports of punishments handed out with the agreement of the prophet(pbuh) that have been recorded in a sahih hadith? Thank you in advance.