I am coming from a Christian environment but I always followed it blindly without doing research on my own about different religions. Now I have grown up and I am doing research on these topics on my own. I tried comparing different religions and I find Judaism and Islam very similar, both have a prophet who communicated with God and wrote down holy texts (Judaism the Old Testament and Islam the Quran). I was wondering about the essential differences between the two, that makes Muslim prefer Islam over Judaism?

What is the status of the hadith reported by Imam Ahmad that says, 'Most of the followers of the Dajjal will be Jews and women'?

Salam'Alaykoum, I know that falsely claiming a refund (e.g. saying a package wasn’t received) is normally haram due to dishonesty. But what about when the company is a large multinational that openly supports Zionist causes and contributes to oppression in Gaza? Does the ruling stay the same in this context, or is there any scholarly nuance? I’m not doing this — just trying to understand the fiqh position. Any sources would be helpful.

First of all: what I mean here by “Jew” is nationality/race and not religion. The question of whether Jesus was a Jew therefore means whether Jesus was an Israeli, i.e. a descendant of Jacob/Israel. The focus here is not on whether Jesus was a Jew from a religious point of view, i.e. whether he was a follower of Judaism. Was Jesus a Jew at all? He had no Jewish father, he is not from Jewish sperm. According to the Bible, a child inherits the nationality from the father. Two examples: 1. The wife of Joseph was a Gentile (Egyptian), and with her he made two children, Ephraim and Manasseh. Although their mother was a Gentile, they are still called Israelis because their father was an Israeli. They inherited their father's nationality. 2. Moses allowed the men of Israel to take Gentile women, but he didn't allow them to take Gentile men for Israeli women. Since Jesus did not come out of Jewish sperm, he can't be a Jew by nationality. It's wrong to say that Jesus was a "half-Jew" because his mother was a Jew. In the Bible, there is no such thing like "half". You are what your father is. If your father is Italian and your mother is Spanish, then you are Italian. You are not half-italian and half-spanish. You are what your father is because out of his sperm you came. However, if someone wants to claim that the nationality goes from mother to child, then he must agree that Ephraim and Manasseh were not Israelis but Egyptians since their mother was Egyptian. He must also agree that Obed was not an Israeli but a Moabite since his mother Ruth was a Moabite. If he does not agree, then his position is hypocritical. I have opened this topic in other communities but they have all been closed. I am opening this topic here now because Jesus also plays a major role in Islam and the question of his nationality is certainly not an unimportant issue for Muslims. Since Jesus has no human father, he cannot biologically belong to any nationality. What does this mean now?

In the Quran there seems to be only one verse i.e.4:157, that denies the crucifixion of Jesus. Even in that verse the denial is about what some Jews had claimed. Even though there are hundreds of thousands of hadiths, none seems to deny categorically what the News Testament teaches about Jesus' crucifixion, death and resurrection. Crucifixion, death and resurrection of Jesus Christ are so central and widespread among various Christian sects early on, including in the seventh century Arabia. Is there any clear evidence that denies the crucifixion, death and resurrection of Jesus Christ in the Islamic texts, both in the Quran and Hadiths?

>And the Jews say: 'Uzair (Ezra) is the son of Allah, > 9:30 > >They (**Jews** and Christians) **took their rabbis** and their monks **to be their lords besides Allah** > 9:31 **Question:** Are Jews monotheists as per Islam? *Reading the verses quoted above, one would feel they aren't monotheists. However, according to [this answer](https://judaism.stackexchange.com/a/10343/13261) in Judaism.SE, it seems the answers are pretty explicit that God is one; "Beside Me there is no God; I have no son.".*

Someone mentioned, in a comment on one of my previous questions, that Muslims believe that King David was a Muslim. Is this indeed the generally held belief across the Muslim world? How can this be? David was the king of Israel, from the Tribe of Judah, wrote commentary on the Torah and led the Jewish people. Also there is no evidence he was ever in Mecca. If he was Muslim, how can you explain all the historical contradictions?

The hadith says: > " A group of Jews entered upon the Prophet and said, > "As-Samu-Alaikum." (i.e. death be upon you). I understood it and said, > "Wa-Alaikum As-Samu wal-la'n. (death and the curse of Allah be Upon > you)." Allah's Apostle said "Be calm, O 'Aisha! Allah loves that on, > should be kind and lenient in all matters." I said, "O Allah's > Apostle! Haven't you heard what they (the Jews) have said?" Allah's > Apostle said "I have (already) said (to them) "And upon you ! " Here when our Prophet (saw) says "And upon you" what does he exactly mean here... just like how the arrogant jews says "Death be upon you" does our Prophet mean the same back at them. If yes, wouldn't it contradict when he said "Be calm, O 'Aisha! Allah loves that on, should be kind and lenient in all matters." If yes, does it question the integrity of the hadith. Please can someone help me understand. Jazakallah

Did Christians and Jews use the word "Allah" to refer to god before Islam. Can this be proved as the oldest arabic Bible only appears after Islam. Thank you

Why do Sunni Muslims not reach out to the people of Gaza as stated in Quran >26:277 : Except those who believe, do good, remember Allah often, and ˹poetically˺ avenge ˹the believers˺ after being wrongfully slandered. The wrongdoers will come to know what ˹evil˺ end they will meet. and >8:72 : Those who believed, emigrated, and strived with their wealth and lives in the cause of Allah, as well as those who gave them shelter and help—they are truly guardians of one another. As for those who believed but did not emigrate, you have no obligations to them until they emigrate. **But if they seek your help ˹against persecution˺ in faith, it is your obligation to help them**, except against people bound with you in a treaty. Allah is All-Seeing of what you do. Islam always invites Muslims to help each other, even in very difficult war conditions. So why do we only see the Shiites of Iran, Lebanon, Iraq and Yemen helping the people of Gaza, and we don't see any practical action from the (1.5 billion) Sunni Muslims? Do Sunnis believe that the verses of the Qur'an are abrogated? Even with this view, the Quran has said that Muslims are brothers and sisters. > 49:10 : The believers are but one brotherhood, so make peace between your brothers. And be mindful of Allah so you may be shown mercy. Or the Qur'an has revealed to us the most hostile of all people towards the faithful i.e. a group of Jews > 5:82 : Surely You will find the most hostile of all people towards the faithful to be the **Jews** and the **polytheists**, and surely you will find the nearest of them in affection to the faithful to be those who say ‘We are Christians.’ That is because there are priests and monks among them, and because they are not arrogant. So, with these clear signs from the Quran, why don't Sunni Muslims do anything against US and Israel? What is the use of Sunni Islam if they do not consider themselves obligated to reach out to their religious brother?

Is narrated in Tirmidhi, Hadith Number 1024: >The Prophet (peace be upon him) said: "When a man calls another a Jew give him twenty lashes, when he calls someone a mukhannath give him twenty lashes; and kill anyone who has intercourse with a woman who is within the prohibited degrees." What is authenticity of this narration? How to make sense of it exactly if it is authentic.

Allah Said: > Quran 9:30 > > وَقَالَتِ الْيَهُودُ عُزَيْرٌ ابْنُ اللَّهِ > > and the Jews said, "Uzair/Ezra is the son of Allah " I am wondering, what was the cause of this verse to come down?

I have been told by my Muslim connections that there is a story in the Quran that relates how wicked the Jews are because they would lay traps to trap fish on the Sabbath. My question is given that the Quran obviously condemns Sabbath desecration by a Jew would it not make sense that a Jew who converts to Islam is still obligated to observe the Sabbath being under the covenant of the Torah which the Quran seems to accept was, at least in its original form, of divine origin? To my horror when I asked this question to my Yemenite Arabic teacher he answered that a Jew that converts should not continue to observe the Sabbath. Surely he is mistaken? Did Islam come to change the Torah? Surely that cannot be the official position of Islamic scholarship?

The following verse in the Torah prophesizes about a nation which will be given "peace" and coming of a praised being: > and I will shake all nations, and the choicest things of all nations(חֶמְדַּת ) > shall come, and I will fill this house with glory, saith the LORD of > hosts. 8 Mine is the silver, and Mine the gold, saith the LORD of > hosts. 9 The glory of this latter house shall be greater than that of > the former, saith the LORD of hosts; and in this place will I give > peace(שָׁלוֹם), saith the LORD of hosts.' Haggai 2 There is a remarkable appearance of the word חֶמְדַּת having root H-M-D. The arabic root for this is given here as Form IV: أَحْمَدَ (ʼáħmada) Also its said that the nation will be great and shake all other nations and God will give the nation "(שָׁלוֹם)"(Sh-L-M is a root for Islam). I understand that prophecies seem to be very cryptic until when the prophecy actually happens , and the verses become clear after the prophecy is manifested. Hence i guess only the ones who are very firmly grounded in knowledge would give us a clue to understand the above verse? And even they can go wrong in interpreting the verses as God alone would know its true meaning. Have any past Islamic scholars analysed this verse of Torah for such prophesies of Muhammad pbuh ?

Although they don't believe in Muhammad (pbuh) as a prophet, they still strongly believe in monotheism and some Jews offer daily prayers (3 times a day if I remember correctly). Islamic and Jewish laws are also very similar. So I think it would be unfair if Allah cast the Jews in hell just because the don't believe in Muhammad (pbuh).

I recently saw a trailer about a biblical person named Samson. I have not heard anything similar in the Islamic scriptures. URL: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mSolF3QBVBY Do we reject the story or simply ignore it as the Prophet was silent about it?

Judaism has a concept called Khumra , which puts additional obligation and prohibitions around Torah. Is there any equivalent in Islam, and if yes, what are some examples

The Prophet had non-Arab Companions which converted to Islam. As they were **non-Arab**, their first religion wouldn't have been **Arabian paganism**, but something like Judaism or Christianity with the exception of **Salman the Persian** who was a Zoroastrian. There were also Arab Jews and Christians in Madinah which became Muslim. Some of these people became part of the Sahaba so **which Sahaba were Jews and Christians before they became Muslim?**

> Narrated `Aisha: Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) died while his (iron) armor was > mortgaged to a Jew for thirty Sas of barley. https://sunnah.com/bukhari:2916 When Prophet (s.a) died he was ruler of vast kingdom and he had lot of muslims to help him. Any reason he had his armor mortgaged with a Jew ?

It is common knowledge that Islam considers the Hebrew bible to be the Holy word of God. I would therefore like to know if Muslims ever refer to Allah as אֱלֹהֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל - "The God of Israel", which is how He refers to Himself over 190 times in Tanach? If not, why not? If yes, what does it mean in Islam? ---------- Note: this is an honest **religious** question aimed at deepened understanding of Islam, **not** a political one.