In Bada’i Al Fuwa’id (4/97) there is mention from Ibn Quayim rahimahullah that you can masturbate with your pre pubescent slave girls hand. Can someone verify whether this is true and explain this to me?

As salamu walikum rahmatullahi barakatuh How to understand these verses, Allah says during hardship such as during sailing if polytheist come across hardship, they would ignore their idols and call upon Allah. But let say a Hindu, he will call upon Krishna or ram, Christian will call upon Jesus, atheist might not call upon any god. How to understand these verses?

I have read a fatawa where the weight of silver for a ring for men should not exceed 4 grams. https://islamqa.org/hanafi/daruliftaa-birmingham/136575/wearing-a-ring-which-is-heavier-than-4-35g/ But I could not find any daleel for this fatawa. Is this fatawa correct? If yes, I would like to know it's daleel.

Imam Jassas said: > فيجوز للأجنبي النظر إلى شعر الأمة وذراعها وساقها وصدرها وثديها كما يجوز لذوي المحرم النظر إلى ذات محرمه > > A stranger male can see the hair, arms, legs, chest and breasts of a slave woman just like he can see these parts of his mahram woman > > [\[Imam Jasas, Ahkam al-Qur'an, Dar al-Qutub al-Arabi, Volume - 3\]][2] Is this true? How did he give such a fatwa? Can you do a quick research on this and give an answer?

In 4 Sunni schools of thought and especially in Hanafi madhab, women joining in jamat for prayer is considered as highly discouraged and makruh tahrimi. But, there are so many ahadith where we can see our Prophet Muhammad[pbuh] said not to prevent women from going to the mosque, female sahaba used to get out of home for jamat in the mosque. Even Umar[ra] could prevent them from doing that. > One of the wives of Umar (bin Al-Khattab) used to offer the Fajr and > the `Isha' prayer in congregation in the Mosque. She was asked why she > had come out for the prayer as she knew that Umar disliked it, and he > has great ghaira (self-respect). She replied, "What prevents him from > stopping me from this act?" The other replied, "The statement of > Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) : **'Do not stop Allah's women-slaves from going > to Allah's Mosques' prevents him.**" > > -Bukhari So, centuries after the death of our beloved Prophet[pbuh], the Sunni jurists of Ahle Sunnah wal Jamah gave fatwas that women praying in the mosque is considered makruh tahrimi?

Islam Q&A say that: "Ahl as-Sunnah wa’l-Jamaa‘ah are unanimously agreed that the Arabs are superior to others in terms of descent and lineage, and that regarding the Arabs as superior is in general terms, and does not apply at the individual level." Link: https://www.google.com/amp/s/islamqa.info/amp/en/answers/182686 Well nationalism or love for the nation doesn't mean love for individuals, it mean love and pride for whole nation and its particular culture, language, descent and lineage. Today Arab nationalists use such scholarly opinions to prove their superiority as a nation over non-Arab muslims such Persians and Turks. On the other hand anti Islam groups use such scholarly opinions to create doubts in the minds of non-Arab muslims. From the fragmentation of Abbasid Caliphate till WWI it were mainly non-Arab nations who carried the flag of Islam and today Arabs don't even make 1/4 of total global muslim population. So why should non-Arab muslims consider their nation, their descent and their lineage lesser than Arabs? Why shouldn't they feel pride over their nation? To sum all this in one question, Why non-Arabs are considered lesser than Arabs as a nation and how can we justify this to non-Arab muslims?

When I was raising my hands before ruku, I quickly fixed my sleeve because I was scared that my arms might show. Does this invalidate my prayer? I know that excessive or unnecessary movements could possibly invalidate salah, but I’m not sure about what to do in this case.

I've read a Fatwa of Shaykh Ibn Baaz where he says Allah has a Shadow. Here's the Fatwa: >Question: Regarding the narration of the seven in the shadow of Allah on the Day where there is no shadow save His Shadow, does this mean Allah Ta’ala has a shadow?” > >ibn Baz answered, “Yes, as is reported in this narration and in some transmissions, ‘in the shadow of His Throne’. However, in the Swahihayn, it is, ‘in His shadow’ for He has a shadow that is befitting His Glory, and we do not know its form, just like the rest of His Attributes.” > > Ref: Majmou Fatawa Vol 28 pg 402 Is it true that Allah has a Shadow? Is there any Salaf saying on this issue?

I came across this fatwa and I can understand to the point that it is forbidden to be in 'an isolated Place' in which a man and a woman will be together based on the hadiths in the fatwa . But in what contexts were these hadiths told by the prophet (pbuh) ? Can you state some situations where else the word 'khalwah' has been used ? (During the time of prophet) What are other fatwas or interpretations of these hadiths ?(Sunni opinions) If I take this fatwa too seriously, I cannot enter even shops where there is only a female sitting, same would apply for my sister/mother/wife who would want to shop. Neither can I enter in a taxi which would be driven by a female. Also, if I am walking on an isolated street and a woman is Approaching, I must suddenly run away to the closest shop that has at least a male. The practicality of such fatwas is really questionable. My purpose of asking this question is to simply categorize the places I visit. For me the definition of isolated place is where you intentionally go with the expectation that no one else can know your presence with the woman.(examples: an isolated field visit purposely, locked room etc) The places that do not fall in this category of isolated places: shops, taxis, streets, common rooms in offices/schools where anyone can enter exit/enter anytime etc.

Assalam o Alaikum to all my Muslim brothers, Darul uloom Deoband issued fatwa and instructed all madrasas to celebrate the independence day of the country. Now, I'm just a student of knowledge so I can't say anything with conviction but From what I understand Nationalism (assabhiyah) was discouraged by the Holy Prophet Muhammed (saw). Therefore is celebrating independence day along side the kuffar, by hoisting flags and singing national anthems tolerated in Islam or is it Against Islam? Also why has the ummah become so intoxicated with nationalism in the past century? Sadly, it seems The young these days are ready to fight their Muslims brothers openly in defense of their nations and government.

*The Reliance of the Traveller*, The Classic Manual of Islamic Sacred Law 'Umdat al-Salik, by Ahmad ibn Naqib al-Misri (translated by Nuh Ha Mim Keller) states: > e1.4 Impure means it is neither purifying nor pure. (O: Namely: > > (1) less than **216 liters** of water (qullatayn) which is contaminated by filth (najasa), even when none of the water's characteristics (n: i.e. taste, color, or odor) have changed; > > (2) or **216 liters** or more of water when one of its characteristics of taste, color, or odor have changed (n: through the effect of the filth. As for the purity of water that has been used to wash away filth, it is discussed below at e14.14).) Here, "n:" indicates a "remark by the translator" and "O:" indicates an "excerpt from the commentary of Sheikh 'Umar Barakat". This quantity *216 liters* is mentioned many times (e1.7 through e1.16, e5.6, e9.1, e14.11, and probably more [I gave up enumerating]). It's a specific quantity, so it's reasonable to expect that it's derived from some Islamic source (and isn't just a best guess). I suspect it's equivalent to some less arbitrary quantity with another unit used during the time of the Prophet. **Question**: Why does *The Reliance of the Traveller* highlight 216 liters of water in the context of impurities? I also found it mentioned in a SeekersHub fatwa .

I will be traveling to India with my mother for her treatment during this Ramadan. From What I have read , one is no more considered a traveler if he stays in the destination city for 15 days or more. Now I don't know the exact days I will have to stay there but the doctor has told us that my mother's medical procedure will be completed in 15 days. Will I be considered a resident in the assumption from the doctor? Being a central Asian I am a little concerned on how I will manage to take care of everything as I am not used to the hot climate in India especially fasting.

Assalamou 'Alaikum Warahmatullahi Wa Barakaatuh Did Ibn Taymiyyah say that Ibn Umar (radwiy Allahu anhu) is a Bidati? Some people said that he did say this, and sent me the following as proof: Please, can you clarify this matter? Jazaak Allahu Kahyr

A Shafi'i fiqh book states: > f1.4 A Muslim who holds the prayer to be obligatory but through lack of concern neglects to perform it until its proper time is over has not committed unbelief (dis: w18.2). Rather, **he is executed, washed, prayed over, and buried in the Muslim's cemetery** (O: as he is one of them. It is recommended, but not obligatory, that he be asked to repent (N: and if he does, he is not executed)). > *The Reliance of the Traveller*, by Ahmad ibn Naqib al-Misri (translated by Nuh Ha Mim Keller) (Here, "N:" indicates a "comment by Sheikh Nuh 'Ali Salman" and "O:" indicates an "excerpt from the commentary of Sheikh 'Umar Barakat".) Islam Q&A affirms this stance: *The Maalikis and Shaafa‘is are of the view that the one who does not pray out of carelessness and laziness, not because he denies that it is obligatory, is to be executed as a hadd punishment...*. **Question**: On what Islamic grounds is this justified? The Qur'an says: > And never is it for a believer to kill a believer except by mistake. ... But whoever kills a believer intentionally - his recompense is Hell, wherein he will abide eternally ... > Qur'an 4:92-93 And there's various hadith which talk about not killing Muslims, e.g.: > ... Abusing a Muslim is Fusuq (i.e., an evil-doing), and killing him is Kufr (disbelief). > Sahih al-Bukhari 6044 > > ... It is not permissible to kill a Muslim except in one of three cases: A adulterer who has been married, who is to be stoned; a man who kills a Muslim deliberately; and a man who leaves Islam and wages war against Allah ... > Sunan an-Nasa'i 4743 [grade: sahih] I asked a related question here: https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/40531/17163 One of the comments there suggested that it can be justified through *And do not kill the soul which Allah has forbidden [to be killed] except by [legal] right* (Qur'an 6:151 ). Thus, I would expect there to be some kind of "legal right" to execute a believer who doesn't pray.

My question is why is plucking the eyebrow or making your teeth shorter haram in Islam. I have heard that it is because you are try to beautify yourself and thus not happy with the way Allah has created you. However, make-up is not haram and it is allowed even though that too is done for the same purpose of beautifying yourself. Another person told me that makeup is adding while plucking is taking away from oneself. Again, we are allowed to take away other hairs from the face and even the hairs in between the eyebrow but not allowed to shape the actual eyebrow? Also in regards to adding, we are not allowed to wear hair extensions. Also although having a beard a strongly recommended Sunnah, men still do not get cursed for shaving their beard. This too is changing the way you look by taking away what Allah has given you. It is too done for beauty purposes. Why is make-up is permissible but shaping the eyebrow or filing the teeth impermissible?

These following hadiths are part of morning and evening adhkar. And it is prescribed to recite these in such a manner that the way the prophet (s.a.w) commanded us to recite. But I've came across something confusing context *(pdf, website's article, scholar's list which is actually authentic)* of morning and evening adhkar where I've found that in the both morning and evening adhkar section they put these following two dhikr **(when the text of those two dhikr clearly state that These can be recited *mentioned* {either in the morning or evening} period)** also. I'm confused and at the same time afraid of failing into bida'(innovation) by reciting them regularly when our prophet (s.a.w) didn't do that. Please clarify and elaborate this poin☝️. **Can I recite these👇 two adhkar alone with the adhkar of morning and evening in daily basis?** > 1/ Muslim (2709) narrated from Abu Hurayrah that he said: A man came > ...https://sunnah.com/urn/517230....He(s.a.w) said: “If you had said, > when **evening** came, A‘oodhu bi kalimaat-Illaah it-taammaati min > sharri ma khalaq (I seek refuge in the perfect words of Allah from the > evil of that which He has created), , it would not have harmed you.” > > > 2/ Muslim (2726) narrated from Juwayriyah that > ........https://sunnah.com/muslim:2726a...........He (s.a.w) came back > in the **forenoon** said: “Are you still as you were when I left you?” > She said: Yes. The Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) > said: “After I left you I said four words three times, which if they > were weighed against what you have said today, they would outweigh it: > ‘Subhaan Allahi wa bi hamdih ‘adada khalqihi wa rida nafsihi wa zinata > ‘arshihi wa midaada kalimaatihi (Glory and praise be to Allah, as much > as the number of His creation, as much as pleases Him, as much as the > weight of His Throne and as much as the extent of His words)’.”

So I asked this question along with other questions in the thread “Why does Islam treat non Muslims as second class citizens”. The thread was closed due to me asking too many questions and that’s understandable. So I will ask each question one by one. Why are non Muslims killed for not paying jizya (Muslims pay Zakat too but aren’t killed for not paying it)? This part of the fatwa says > So whoever refuses to enter Islam should be fought when the Muslims are able to fight, until they either enter Islam or pay the jizyah if they are among the people who may pay jizyah. Fighting them basically means that you are going to fight them until they are killed. Plus the polytheists don’t even get the choice of paying the jizya. They are either fought or forced to convert to Islam. Source: https://islamqa.info/en/answers/34770/there-is-no-compulsion-to-accept-islam

Salam, When I was reading a fatwa, I came across a statement like that: > "...if a Muslim denies to pray, he is to be executed for his disbelief, which means that he is not to be washed, the funeral prayer is not to be offered for him, and he is not to be buried in the Muslim graveyard. **However he is not to be enslaved and his family and children are not to be taken captive, like other apostates.**" (Source ) So, normally apostates' families are taken as slaves. Did I understand this correctly? I asked this to other scholars and they said this is not true or they've never heard such a ruling. I am so confused, is this true or not? If it is, why? If a Muslim man becomes an apostate, why his innocent Muslim wife and children become slaves? She is still a Muslim (we know that because they would execute her too if she was an apostate like her husband, but they don't kill her but take her as a captive which means she is still a Muslim and did nothing wrong), why she is taken as a captive? Why should a woman suffer slavery because of her husbands sin? Thank you.

is this masturbate? but I didn't touch my vagina. I tried to hard to get rid of this and please help me.

while urinating sometimes i get doubts wether urine drops splashes came to me or not iam not sure about it so do i have ro change my trouser and wash my feet