Not sure if this source is real but I need help on verifying if it is true and whether this means that mermaids are real in Islam and permissible to eat. There is this fatwa from IslamQA. But then IslamWeb contradicts this from from their fatwa so I need someone to verify if mermaids are real or not.

So I asked this question along with other questions in the thread “Why does Islam treat non Muslims as second class citizens”. The thread was closed due to me asking too many questions and that’s understandable. So I will ask each question one by one. Why are non Muslims killed for not paying jizya (Muslims pay Zakat too but aren’t killed for not paying it)? This part of the fatwa says > So whoever refuses to enter Islam should be fought when the Muslims are able to fight, until they either enter Islam or pay the jizyah if they are among the people who may pay jizyah. Fighting them basically means that you are going to fight them until they are killed. Plus the polytheists don’t even get the choice of paying the jizya. They are either fought or forced to convert to Islam. Source: https://islamqa.info/en/answers/34770/there-is-no-compulsion-to-accept-islam

I am currently researching about dhul hijjah and have not read what days specifically you are meant to fast, is anyone able to shed some light?

I am aware exposing your sins is forbidden in Islam, however, I’m writing a book that I’d like to advise future Muslims not to make the same mistakes I’ve made. I was wondering if I could tell them what I did in order to prevent them from taking the wrong path in case they stumble upon that road? I’ve heard of the term, Jahaliyaah but does that justify it’s okay to tell people my sins not for fun but for the sake of preventing them from making the same mistakes I did in the age of ignorance?

Assalamoalaikum. I have a question in my mind from past few days. The question is that after having sexual intercourse or, say, after masturbating one does ghusl to attain purity. But what if some semen remained in the urinary tract of penis and after a small time of doing ghusl he do pee and that semen came out that time. What would be done in this situation? Do he needs to do ghusl again? Please give a nice answer with some relevant reference, if any. Jazakallah hu khair.

At one place Islam Q&A (2002) mentions Islam can be forced upon pagans: > The scholars explained that ... they are not to be forced, rather they are to be given the choice between becoming Muslim or paying the jizyah. > > Other scholars said that this applied in the beginning, but was subsequently abrogated by Allaah’s command to fight and wage jihad. ... **The kuffaar should be compelled to enter Islam** if they are not people from whom the jizyah may be taken, because that will lead to their happiness and salvation in this world and in the Hereafter. Obliging a person to adhere to the truth in which is guidance and happiness is better for him than falsehood. In another place, Islam Q&A (2009) mentions seven conditions for testimony of faith: 1. knowledge, 2. certainty, 3. acceptance and submission, 4. following that which is indicated, 5. truthfulness, 6. sincerity, and 7. love for this word and for what it implies and indicates. When a pagan is forced to Islam, he's not satisfying the seven criteria mentioned in immediate above link. Aren't these two verdicts contradictory?

A popular answer style on this site is "here's a fatwa", and these are often sourced from Islam Q&A , probably due to availability probably more than anything else. If I read any given fatwa, I wouldn't expect the author's authority to be recognized by all Muslims. For example, a Hanafi fatwa would (presumably) only speak for those belonging to the Hanafi madhhab, and maybe only the scholars within this madhhab. I'm wondering who Islam Q&A fatawa speak for. **Question**: Who does a typical Islam Q&A fatwa speak for? As I understand things, Islam Q&A is a Salafi fatwa site, so presumably it speaks only for Salafi Muslims or Salafi scholars.

It happens that I am told not to greet disbelievers with Salaam , or peace. However in the Quran Surah Maryam , Ibrahim clearly said peace to his father who at the time was a disbeliever, a polytheist. I wonder why is this? I'd appreciate references to Quran and Sunnah.

I have read that it is not permissible , but I have also seen many good examples of Female Political Leaders . Is there a final word on this? Perhaps an explanation of the first article that removes all doubt from me? Is there a difference between a muslim, and a non-muslim country?

A few days ago I read in a website (IslamQA.com) that punishment for apostasy under sharia law is death. They also provided a hadith related to that. (the entire fatwa can be read here: http://islamqa.info/en/20824) But doesn't this contradict the following ayah? >There shall be no compulsion in [acceptance of] the religion. The right course has become clear from the wrong. So whoever disbelieves in Taghut and believes in Allah has grasped the most trustworthy handhold with no break in it. And Allah is Hearing and Knowing." (Surah Al-Baqara: 256) Please someone clear this confusion.