Is it true that the apostates' families are taken as slaves?

Salam, When I was reading a fatwa, I came across a statement like that: > "...if a Muslim denies to pray, he is to be executed for his disbelief, which means that he is not to be washed, the funeral prayer is not to be offered for him, and he is not to be buried in the Muslim graveyard. **However he is not to be enslaved and his family and children are not to be taken captive, like other apostates.**" (Source ) So, normally apostates' families are taken as slaves. Did I understand this correctly? I asked this to other scholars and they said this is not true or they've never heard such a ruling. I am so confused, is this true or not? If it is, why? If a Muslim man becomes an apostate, why his innocent Muslim wife and children become slaves? She is still a Muslim (we know that because they would execute her too if she was an apostate like her husband, but they don't kill her but take her as a captive which means she is still a Muslim and did nothing wrong), why she is taken as a captive? Why should a woman suffer slavery because of her husbands sin? Thank you.