There is a game that you need to be in a team and one of them is imposter. And whoever is imposter, he need to hide his and identity and lie about certain things. Everyone in the game knows someone is lying and they know that this game requires to lie. So will the person in video game who has to lie get sin for that? **Even though everyone in game agreed to that.** From example popular game "Among Us "

SalamwAllak I want ask about those quran qari are going to dubai or other countries for contract time and for amount of money praying as imam because they think they have nice voice for qiraa ?

ٱلسَّلَامُ عَلَيْكُمْ. If someone have drew many drawings of humans and animals some are faceless, and some of are of eyes nose or lips and some are like full body with head but no expressions. Now the person wants to repent sincerely, but the intentions while making that drawing were very clear it was not to worship them. But still liked to draw. Now that person know that It's Haram and what's the punishment etc. the person wants to repent sincerely. The thing is most of the drawings he/she have found she has burned them but some are nowhere to be found. She have looked everywhere but those drawings are lost. Now? What to do? Will Allāh forgive it? Is it shirk? Explain the answer.

According to the Shafi'i madhhab, standing water does not purify a thing from najis, but on the contrary, it becomes najis if it comes into contact with it, and its volume is less than about 216 liters. It turns out that if I put a thing stained with najis in the washing machine for washing, it will not be cleaned, but on the contrary will make all the things that are washed with it unclean? It's just that I used to wash things in the washing machine that had an invisible najis on them without any signs (volume, color, taste, smell).

It's plausible, at some point, that I might be asked to do a TV interview. My recent research is on a topic that might be picked up by the press. I'm unsure if this is appropriate as a Muslim woman. It clashes with the modesty expected of a Muslim woman. Yet, at the same time, it's not hard to find Muslim women on TV, so it's presumably sometimes acceptable. **Question**: Under what circumstances is it okay for a Muslim woman to be on TV?

*Note: This post is intended to provide a canonical answer for a common class of questions* --- The forbiddance of drinking *khamr* is is well-known in Sunni Islam, based primarily on the following Qur'anic ayah: > [[Al-Ma'idah 90](http://legacy.quran.com/5/90)] O you who have believed, indeed, intoxicants (*khamr*), gambling, stone altars, and divining arrows are but defilement from the work of Satan, so avoid it that you may be successful. In addition, two common ahadith are used to elaborate on this, as follows: > Every intoxicant is wine (*khamr*) and every intoxicant is forbidden. and > Whatever intoxicates in large amounts, a small amount of it is unlawful. Whereas the forbiddance on drinking alcoholic beverages in general is, to the best of my knowledge, unanimously held, there is some dispute between the scholars as to how far the prohibition against foods that contain alcohol — even trace amounts — is to be taken. While I'm sure there are many others I'm missing, off the top of my head some of the points of contention would include issues such as "Is the alcohol from wine (i.e. grapes) or some other source," "Does the final product contain enough alcohol to be detected or to have an intoxicating effect," "Was the alcohol added intentionally, or did it generate naturally (e.g. leavened bread, fermented fruit juice)," and "Does the rule of necessity apply (e.g. alcohol in medicine)?" In order to prevent opinion-based voting, please refrain from posting answers that only cover a single point of view: **What I am looking for in an answer here is *a single post* summarizing the major points of contention and predominant opinions of each of the Sunni madhahib**, ideally with a brief explanation of why that opinion is held if it is fundamentally different from the others or seems to go against clear evidences. Including significant opinions outside of those dominantly held by the major madhahib would also be welcome, as long as they're clearly marked as such. In the interest of keeping this from getting too broad (if it isn't already), I am limiting this question to alcohol that is clearly meant for human consumption (i.e. food, beverages or oral medication); the issue of alcohol being used in things like perfume or topical treatments is irrelevant here.

I live in a Smallish city, we still voted for Trump, but we have a mosque, and a few black people, and people in smaller towns are afraid to move here because they think they'll get shot in a week. We're biggish, but we still have our fair share of bigots. I've already seen a few people make nasty comments about Muslims (and various other minorities). Before the election I saw a couple that refused to eat at a restaurant until a generic middle eastern family (I didn't see any outward indication of their faith) was removed. (In that story the couple was removed, not the middle eastern family) With the election of the Republican candidate, I believe Bigots will be emboldened, and more inclined to voice their opinions in an aggressive manor. I've read about strategies for an outside observer to intervene in a nonviolent way (Place yourself between victim and harasser, don't directly acknowledge harasser, make small talk, walk away from situation with victim, etc). I feel I may have to be called upon to protect a Muslim individual from harassment. While I have no formal training in this sort of conflict resolution, I don't want to have to say to myself someday "I just sat on the sidelines while this happened" I realize that there are multiple branches of Islam, but I'm just looking for high level summarization. I know there are *some* rules about contact between men and women that basically boils down to "No Touching", but I don't know if that's all. I don't want to offend or be ignorant of someone's religion. I don't want to put my arm around their shoulder if it's going to be taken as a religious slight. I don't want to make eye contact if it's weird. Would it be possible to provide a summary of the rules?

Is it right for the husband to tell his wife to go stay with her mother since he hasn't a place for his uncle & guest's to stay in our house b/c of his uncle's wife funeral , and there is no place in his uncle's home for his male guests to sleep

There is a tradition from Sahih Bukhari, Book 65, Hadith 4879 > **حَدَّثَنَا خَالِدُ بْنُ مَخْلَدٍ، حَدَّثَنَا سُلَيْمَانُ، قَالَ حَدَّثَنِي مُعَاوِيَةُ بْنُ أَبِي مُزَرَّدٍ، عَنْ سَعِيدِ بْنِ > يَسَارٍ، عَنْ أَبِي هُرَيْرَةَ ـ رضى الله عنه ـ عَنِ النَّبِيِّ صلى > الله عليه وسلم قَالَ ‏"‏ خَلَقَ اللَّهُ الْخَلْقَ، فَلَمَّا فَرَغَ > مِنْهُ قَامَتِ الرَّحِمُ فَأَخَذَتْ بِحَقْوِ الرَّحْمَنِ فَقَالَ لَهَا > مَهْ‏.‏ قَالَتْ هَذَا مَقَامُ الْعَائِذِ بِكَ مِنَ الْقَطِيعَةِ‏.‏ > قَالَ أَلاَ تَرْضَيْنَ أَنْ أَصِلَ مَنْ وَصَلَكِ وَأَقْطَعَ مَنْ > قَطَعَكِ‏.‏ قَالَتْ بَلَى يَا رَبِّ‏.‏ قَالَ فَذَاكِ لَكِ ‏"‏‏.‏ قَالَ > أَبُو هُرَيْرَةَ اقْرَءُوا إِنْ شِئْتُمْ ‏{‏فهَلْ عَسَيْتُمْ إِنْ > تَوَلَّيْتُمْ أَنْ تُفْسِدُوا فِي الأَرْضِ وَتُقَطِّعُوا > أَرْحَامَكُمْ‏}** > > > The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "Allah created His creation, and when He was > done with it, the womb, got up and **caught hold of the Merciful's > loin (or loincloth?)** Allah said, "What is the matter?' On that, it said, 'I seek refuge with you from those who sever the ties of Kith and kin.' > On that Allah said, 'Will you be satisfied if I bestow My favors on > him who keeps your ties, and withhold My favors from him who severs > your ties?' On that it said, 'Yes, O my Lord!' Then Allah said, 'That > is for you.' " Abu Huraira added: If you wish, you can recite: "Would > you then if you were given the authority. do mischief in the land and > sever your ties of kinship. (47. 22) ‏ According to *Almaany Online Arabic Dictionary* the Arabic word "حَقو", [means](http://www.almaany.com/home.php?language=arabic&word=%D8%AD%D9%82%D9%88&lang_name=English&type_word=0&dspl=0) 'groin' and 'loin'. *Google Translate* (which admittedly doesn't have a scholarly-authored glossary but one that reflects languages as commonly used by internet users) [returns](https://translate.google.com/#ar/en/%D8%AD%D9%8E%D9%82%D9%88) 'waist' and 'loin'. I also looked up the word "الحقو" in an Arabic Dictionary (?) and this was the definition: > الحقو- بفتح المهملة و سكون القاف-: موضع شد الإزار، و هو الخاصرة، ثم توسعوا حتى سموا الإزار الذي يشد على العورة" حقوا" و الجمع" أحق" و" > حقي" مثل فلس و أفلس و فلوس، و قد يجمع على" حقاء" كسهام. > >is the place where the loincloth is fasten which is waist, then they extended it to name the loincloth itself ... But in the translation offered by [Sunnah.com](http://sunnah.com/urn/45090) , it seems that the word 'حقو' is entirely ignored which could be an indication that their translation is not literal but interpretive, i.e. how this particular translator understands and interprets the hadith. But since a physical part or object is attributed to Allah in the original Arabic version of the hadith, what does it mean? Does it meant that Allah have indeed physical parts or belongings, or else?

Is there any strong reference about imam amash being shia or if not the what then prove it with refrence with writing arabic text for refrence book

How many Ain ع, How many Lam ل and How many Ye ي‎ in Sura Haqqah? My goal is to find name علي‎, ʿAlī in Suratil Haqqah, and main goal is to find individual letters how many times did they repeat in this Sura. For Example in Ayatul Qursi Ain ع repeated 7 times Ayatul Qursi Lam ل repeated 25 times Ayatul Qursi Ye ي repeated 17 times

My brother sells the Christmas trees, Chris cakes on which write happy Christmas, and other Christmas related products. And he paid my education fee from this money. Now tell me will my income be halal and will I commit shirk if I use this knowledge as a job or businesses. Also tell me is it permissible to live in his house.

I have been married for 3 years but I have lived with my husband at his home together for only 3 months then I left him and lived with my parents house for the next years like married in june 2022 lived with husband for 3 months till September then left him and lived at my house till now so when I take divorce from my husband do I have to do idaat for 3 and half months ?

I’ve come across statements by some contemporary scholars and educators suggesting that pursuing mathematics—particularly with the intention of understanding the order of creation or serving humanity—can be considered a form of *‘ibadah* (worship) in Islam. This idea resonates with how classical Muslim civilizations valued mathematics, astronomy, and logic. Scholars like Al-Khwarizmi, Al-Biruni, and Ibn Sina made substantial mathematical contributions while being deeply religious. *My question:* *Is there a basis in **Qur’an**, **Hadith**, or **classical Islamic scholarship** that explicitly or implicitly supports the view that studying mathematics (or science more broadly) can be an act of worship? And are there examples from Islamic history where mathematical inquiry was treated as a spiritual or religious endeavor?* *What I’ve considered:* *I’ve looked into Qur’anic verses such as *“Indeed, in the creation of the heavens and the earth…”* (3:190) and some writings of Al-Ghazali, but I’d appreciate more precise scholarly references.*

While reading the Qur’an, I noticed that it refers to itself in different ways—sometimes saying **“We revealed the Qur'an”** (e.g., *Innā naḥnu nazzalnā al-dhikr*), and in other places referring to it in the third person, like **“This is the Book”** (*Dhālika al-kitāb*). *My Question* *How have classical scholars and modern commentators interpreted these shifts? And does this variation carry implications for understanding divine speech and authorship in Islam?* I’m especially interested in how scholars of *tafsīr* and Arabic rhetoric have explained this pattern.

I often come across the terms **Sabr** (patience) and **Tawakkul** (trust in Allah) in Islamic discourse, especially in the context of facing difficulties. They both seem to guide a believer on how to respond to trials, but I wonder if there’s a deeper distinction. > Are **Sabr** and **Tawakkul** fundamentally different concepts, or are they two sides of the same spiritual coin? Specifically: * Can one have Sabr without Tawakkul, or vice versa? * Are there specific Qur’anic verses or Hadiths where their distinction or connection is made explicit? * How have classical scholars interpreted the relationship between the two? Understanding this distinction would help me in framing my mindset during personal challenges—when to endure patiently and when to actively place my trust in Allah’s plan.

# Statements: # Imam **Abu Haneefah** (may Allah have mercy on him) said: > "If the hadeeth is saheeh then that is my madhhab." > > “It is not permissible for anyone to follow what we say if they do not know where we got it from.” > > (According to another report) > “It is haraam for the one who does not know my evidence to issue a fatwa based on my words.” > > (According to another report, he added:) >“We are human, we may say something today and retract it tomorrow.” > > “If I say something that goes against the Book of Allaah or the report of the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), then ignore what I say.” Imam **Maalik** (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: >“I am only human, sometimes I make mistakes and sometimes I get things right. Look at my opinion and whatever is in accordance with the Qur’aan and Sunnah, take it, and whatever is not in accordance with the Qur’aan and Sunnah, ignore it.” > > “There is no one after the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) whose words cannot be taken or left, apart from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him).” (“Everyone’s statement can be taken or rejected except for the companion of this grave”) Imam **al-Shaafa’i** (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: > “There is no one who will not be unaware of some of the Sunnah of the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). Whatever I say or whatever guidelines I establish, if there is a report from the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) which is different to what I said, then what matters is what the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said, and that is my opinion.” Imam **Ahmad** (may Allah have mercy on him) said: > “Do not follow me blindly and do not follow Maalik or al-Shaafa’i or al-Awzaa’i or al-Thawri blindly. Learn from where they learned.” > > “The opinion of al-Awzaa’i and the opinion of Maalik and the opinion of Abu Haneefah are all mere conjecture and it is all the same to me. Rather evidence is to be found in the reports – i.e., in the shar’i evidence.” These statements are widely cited by many including Islamqa and are so much popular that people don't feel the necessity to give the source of it. So I would like to know where this statement is written. What is the source of these statements? Where did these statements come from? There must be a source. I hope someone will be able to find it. Jazzak Allah Khair.

So, I saw this [Fatwa](https://islamqa.info/en/answers/88353/what-is-the-reward-for-spouses-treating-one-another-kindly) on islamqa and it quoted a Hadith. This part of the Hadith says: > Shall I not tell you about your women in Paradise?” We said: Yes, O Messenger of Allah. He said: “The loving and fertile one who, if she gets angry or is mistreated or her husband gets angry says, ‘Here is my hand in your hand, I shall not sleep until you are pleased.’” As far as the authenticity of the Hadith goes, the article says: > It was also narrated from a number of other Sahabah, hence it was classed as hasan by al-Albani in al-Silsilah al-Saheehah (3380) and in Saheeh al-Targheeb (1942). Does this mean that women have to tolerate mistreatment and abuse from their husbands? And what if a woman is not fertile? Isn’t she deserving of Paradise because Allah has made the fertile women superior?

Iam a 20 year old woman! I keep telling my mom, Get me married wherever I like, I don't want to commit sin (zina),But my mom says your dad will never agree until the boy earns something or can run a household. Despite that, I've told my mom repeatedly, but she says your dad will shout at me, and get angry, I know him. Don't even think about marriage for 2-3 years.and I'm in need So as he (the Man I love)! So, can I get married myself with 2 witnesses who are Muslim and mature? Will my nikah be valid? Because my mom is 100% sure that neither my dad nor society will agree."and there is the danger of nfs So Islam is that strict that someone is in need and their parents are not allowing her to marry! And I know all the Hadith about validness and invalidness But my topic is if guardian are not agreeing what should the girl do?

My mother refuses marriage with a girl (my cousin's sister in law). She says the girl's status is not same as me, and she lives in a village, that means my family is only concern to the social status. However, we got married in front of quazi and in that occasion two of my wife's cousins were present, and there were witnesses also, but we still didn't announce our marriage to our family members because they will got hurt. We thought our family issue will be managed, and we will get married again by their permission, but the scenario is different and not as we thought; my guardian is too strict and they are not allowing me to do so. - If I want to listen to my family then I'll have to divorce (secretly) that girl. - If I don't then I'll have to announce the marriage to society. *Question*: Is our marriage valid? The marriage is already done by papers, although the marriage is not valid by Allah. So the papers/kabin is just like an agreement now, not kabin (my understanding). This question is a continuation from https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/30869/17163