Before asking my question I need to explain what made me ask it: Often when in a Muslim community a new revert/convert (in the cases I witnessed always female) came. The Muslims always gave (her) the advice to get married with a practicing Muslim of the other gender. So what if for some reasons one of this future spouses only agrees for this marriage to make a good deed, so the intention isn't to get married in the obvious way, but to help the other to learn as quick as possible more about Islam and how to practice things according this religion. So the purpose of this marriage is creating a legal mahram contact where both could be together. Note that I've often encountered marriages where the husband needed somebody to care for him, these were arranged marriages were a younger lady married an old for example blind man to take care from him. Apparently such marriages were "Building a family" isn't the main goal seem accepted. I guess if somewhere deep inside the idea of a future divorce exists this could be considered as nikah al-muta' by some scholars. And therefore this condition might not be accepted for nikah. But I assume that it is possible to get married without the intention of being physical whether or or not this can be placed in a marriage contract can be discussed. Also verses of the Qur'an and the prophetic traditions rather invite us to get married and have children, which is excluded by this condition! - So can such a condition be valid? - In any case: **What kinds of conditions are not valid for 'aqd an-nikah**? (ruling?) - Assuming this condition is valid, what if the spouses later want to be together as real spouses and have children must they divorce or re-write the 'aqd, what is the correct solution? ---------- At least this fatwa (only available in Arabic so far islamqa #220804 ) seems to say that delaying to have children (or pregnancy) can be a valid condition. Even if the fatwa says that the husband should convince his future wife to have children, as this is recommended by shari'a.

I am a muslim male. When I was a child a person older than me had anal sex with me several times. When I was a teenager I had oral sex with one of my cousins. Does that make me a fornicator? According to Quran 24:3 A fornicator does not marry except a fornicator. How can I get married?

In early Christian apocalyptic literature, particularly the treatise "A Discourse on the End of the World and on Antichrist" (often attributed to Pseudo-Hippolytus), the number 666 is sometimes interpreted not as a personal name, but as symbolizing the act of denying Christ. In the pseudo-Hippolytus tradition, 666 has been linked to the Greek word arnoume (ἀρνοῦμε), meaning “I deny,” using a particular isopsephic spelling variant. In Islamic eschatology, several narrations found in Sahih al-Bukhari and Sahih Muslim describe al-Masīḥ al-Dajjāl as having the letters “ك ف ر” (kāf–fā’–rā’)(disbeliever) written on his forehead, readable by every believer. My questions are: How do contemporary Muslim scholars respond to claims that this hadith may have been influenced by Greco-Christian apocalyptic writings? Also how the reassess the reliability and authenticity of this hadith from above concerning perspective?

I understand that according to classical fiqh, a master may sell a concubine after intercourse if she does not become pregnant and the waiting period (iddah) is observed. However, my question is different from merely asking about the permissibility of a single sale. What I am asking about is the following scenario: If a man intentionally structures repeated sales of the same woman — for example, selling her to another man for intercourse and then having her returned to him under a pretext (such as “discontent”), and repeating this process — such that the same original man repeatedly benefits from her sexual use, would this still be considered permissible? Does Islamic law consider the intent and overall structure in such a case? Would using valid sales contracts in this way be considered sinful if the purpose is to simulate prostitution through a legal loophole? Or returning based on “discontent” if that was untrue and done just to get around the ruling? “They were in effect prostituted; not by being owned by a single man who sold their sexual favors, but by being sold from client to client, and thus frequently changing owners. This solved the ban of prostitution, since it was allowed for a man to have sex with his slave. Since the principle of concubinage in Islam in Islamic Law allowed a man to have intercourse with his female slave, prostitution was also practiced by a pimp selling his female slave on the slave market to a client, who was allowed to have intercourse with her as her new owner; and who returned his ownership of her to her pimp on the pretext of discontent after intercourse, which was a legal and accepted method for prostitution in the Islamic world.” https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_prostitution Do not force your ˹slave˺ girls into prostitution for your own worldly gains while they wish to remain chaste. And if someone coerces them, then after such a coercion Allah is certainly All-Forgiving, Most Merciful ˹to them https://quran.com/an-nur/33

Sometimes after using toilet to unrinate and doing istinjaa I can feel drop along my leg or fall below my kness to the calf area. This make me very much confused if it is urine or water from drop after istinjaa. I have tried to sit down for a while after istanja but it happens. This causes a confusion if I am clean or not and that leads me to delaying of prayer. What should I do?

In the story of creation of Adam when Allah planned to create Adam, angles asked Allah are you creating a creation which will spread mischief in the world. I know their question was for the knowledge gain. But I'm questioning here the angles are made from light. They work that Allah commands them, was that incident was the command of Allah . Have they a brain to think?

Asking because someone said in a philosophy discussion "God should be able to defy logic". I am still learning about Islam and I hope that Allah may guide the person who disbelieves in Him. I want to know the answer to this question so that Allah, the Most Merciful, may increase me in knowledge.

From my research, it seems it is permissible to claim tax deductions for halal money that I have donated. But what about haram money like interests? I donate all interests I have earned to tax deductible islamic charities and would like to know if I should claim tax deductions on these donations?

There might be circumstances which result in me hitting men (non mehram) in anger or disgust. The contact of my hand with the man's face/arm/back is purely for hitting, but is that acceptable?

I prayed istikhara for marriage. Whether i should accept a marriage proposal or wait for someone who i have in mind, attracted to and really like (i don't speak and I'm not in contact with this person). I prayed istikhara for 3 days and on the fourth day a friend of mine told me that the parents of the guy who i like, were considering me for their son. Is that a sign that i should wait for this person?

So I heard fatwas from sheikhs and scholars that generally wearing wig is haram but if a women has defect, like hair loss then she can wear it to fix it. For example even in this islamwqa article > With regard to using a wig in a case such as that which you have described, where the woman’s hair has fallen out in a case in which there is no hope of it growing back, we say that in such cases there is nothing wrong with wearing a wig, because in fact it is not done to enhance beauty; rather it is done to remove a defect. Sheikh ibn Uthaymin However I found a Hadith that shows that even in the case when the hair falls out cause of disease. It is still prohibited > حَدَّثَنَا الْحُمَيْدِيُّ، حَدَّثَنَا سُفْيَانُ، حَدَّثَنَا هِشَامٌ، > أَنَّهُ سَمِعَ فَاطِمَةَ بِنْتَ الْمُنْذِرِ، تَقُولُ سَمِعْتُ > أَسْمَاءَ، قَالَتْ سَأَلَتِ امْرَأَةٌ النَّبِيَّ صلى الله عليه وسلم > فَقَالَتْ يَا رَسُولَ اللَّهِ إِنَّ ابْنَتِي أَصَابَتْهَا الْحَصْبَةُ، > فَامَّرَقَ شَعَرُهَا، وَإِنِّي زَوَّجْتُهَا أَفَأَصِلُ فِيهِ فَقَالَ > ‏"‏ لَعَنَ اللَّهُ الْوَاصِلَةَ وَالْمَوْصُولَةَ ‏"‏‏.‏ Narrated > Asma': A woman asked the Prophet (ﷺ) saying, "0 Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) > ! My daughter got measles and her hair fell out. Now that I got her > married, may I let her use false hair?" He said (to her), "Allah has > cursed the lady who lengthens hair artificially and the one who gets > her hair lengthened artificially." Sahih Sahih al-Bukhari, 5941 Then which is the right understanding? And how do you reconcile with the Hadith?

What if at any 29th day of the month, the weather is always bad, so you can't observe anything, so that you always need to add a 30th day to the month And what if at the contrary, you can always observe the moon at the 29th day and all your months are only 29 days I think the second case can not be possible as the moon doesn't do a cycle every 29 day but 29,5 days, so you should be able to keep a good pace with the observation But in the first case, their calendar will be late, their year will last longer So is there any other system (than observing at the 29th day) to correct a bad weather in order to correct the calendar, to synchronize a way or another? It's already difficult some months where all countries have difficulties not to be synchronized (in the same country people fight each-other to know when begin ramadhan), but over a year, it's impossible (12 day difference per year maximum, so a completely different calendar depending on the country)

We have sahih hadiths to learn authentic info about the life of the prophet, do we have something equivalent in authority and reliability for those four caliphs ?

So I was reading this article , and I read these 2 ahadith in it. and it goes like this, > Allah created some people for hell and some people for paradise. My initial understanding of this hadith was that, as people live out their lives. The people who do good will goto heaven and people who do bad will goto hell, both groups of people are given free will. So it is very fair and I dont have any issue with it. but then this next hadith confuses me, > Each one of you will find it easy to do what he was created for. This above hadith makes it sound very unfair to me, for example lets say I was created for hell that means God created a **tendency** in me to commit sins and made it harder for me to do good deeds. While the people God chose for heaven, he made a **tendency** in them to do good deeds and made it hard for them to commit sins. So this kind of negates the whole **free will** thing. It basically means that God has chosen favourites and the system is **rigged** as the chances of person created for Hell commiting sins **by design** is higher than the chances for person created for Heaven to commit sins. Also can be intrepreted as not all humans were created equal, as it is unfair towards the person created for Hell, as God literally made it easier for him to commit sins at no fault of his. I am a Muslim and I believe in Allah and his Prophet (PBUH) and this hadith could be weak or I am misinterpreting it, so please if anybody knows, can you please clarify for me. Thank you

The mosque today the imam did 3 rakahs and for the first rakah there was no rukoo, we just went straight to prostration as well as only one prostration. Then the second rakah was normal except didn’t sit for tashahhud after 2nd prostration they all went up. For the 3rd rakah, we did all the normal steps and said tashahhud and salam. I'm very confused.

Ibliss he was very truthful to God before Adam. My question does Ibliss still pray to Allah or has he stopped?

So, I have met a woman who is a Muslim revert for the last 6 years Alhamdulillah. She is learning a lot. We have met a couple of times (in public, she has no wali as they passed away a long time ago) to get to know one another with all respect in place. I decided to do an Istikihara - well, I asked someone who is more religious and more closer to Allah, who is a trusted Imam. The result came out as negative and I understand that this means Allah basically has something (inshallah) better for me and that this person is not suitable for marriage for me. Whilst I understand it is better to not continue with this potential match, what generally will happen if you ignore the result of Istikihara? I know it would be rendered pointless in the first place but will Allah be displeased with you? I know that the Imam has done it once and said a couple of days later that it came out negative. I do of course trust him but is this enough?

I had taste of blood in my mouth for 1-2 seconds and swallowed it as I was in the mosque and couldn't spit it out. Will it break my fast or not?

When a person kills himself ,he goes to jahannam. Allah says in the Quran: > {Surely Allah does not forgive that anything should be associated with Him, and forgives what is besides that to whomsoever He pleases; and whoever associates anything with Allah, he devises indeed a great sin.} > >(Quran 4: 48) So my question is,when a person committed suicide,will Allah forgive him if He wants?

Assalamu aleykum, when breaking our fast we say this duaa : The thirst is gone, and the veins are moistened and the reward is certain InshaAllah. My question is, how do we interpret this since we say it right after we break the fast so our veins don't moisten immediately for instance. So is it more of a description of the process? Any answer would help. Jazakum Allahu khairan.