If a vigilante kills an apostate, would the vigilante face the death sentence?

Soldiers are like slaves to their commanders and have to do whatever they are told to do. If not, in war like situation, they can be punished by their commanders. So will the soldiers be accountable for the killing they do ? The question came to mind because of the recent war in Palestine. The jews who are fighting Palestinians are doing so because they have to do compulsory military service, so even if they dislike killing people, they are compelled to do so. Note: I have asked same question in Judaism section also. Actually Muslims and Jews are brothers who are descended of our patriarch Abraham (Peace be upon him), It is sad to see them fighting each other, I feel like they are forced to fight each other by some who have vested interest in this conflict.

Is it correct that kin punishment can be used according to the Sharia? Wikipedia says certain bedouins consider it correct to kill members of the murderer's family, based on the Sharia.

Now that war is going on in the middle east, whole over the world people across religion, caste and creed are praying for the children killed in the war. But no one seems to pray for the killers, that is Israeli Army. We know the fate of children killed in war, they are guarenteed to be in Paradise as they never did any sin. But what about those who are doing the killings, that is the Israeli Army. I feel pity for them as I think their fate is Hell, if they do not repent. So can I pray for the Israeli Army, So that they are guided to truth, at least to what is mentioned in Old testament ? My question is specific to Israeli Army, so the other questions do not answer my question.

States who have the death penalty for murder tend to have a common way of executing the offender, such as the electric chair, lethal injection, firing squad, decapitation etc. What are Islam's teachings on this? Is there freedom to choose the method or are there any restrictions?

My sixteen year old brother died recently. His death happened under mysterious circumstances and we've tried everything to find out what happened but unfortunately we can't find an answer. We all feel like it was a murder, is there a chance of his soul communicating to us through a dream, where he tells us what happened?

**In the event of a murder we see the following instruction in the Quran...** "O you who have believed, prescribed for you is legal retribution for those murdered – the free for the free, the slave for the slave, and the female for the female. But whoever overlooks from his brother anything, then there should be a suitable follow-up and payment to him with good conduct. This is an alleviation from your Lord and a mercy. But whoever transgresses after that will have a painful punishment." (Surah 2:178) What does the Quran mean when it says, "the free for the free, the slave for the slave, and the female for the female" in the murder context? Does it mean that if a free man kills a slave unjustly then one of his slaves must be put to death for his crime? What if that man doesn't have slaves at all? What if a man kills a woman, does this mean that a female member of his family such as mother, sister, wife, daughter etc., must be put to death for his crime? If a woman kills a man should a male member of her family be put to death? Likewise, if a slave male kills a free male then the owner of the male slave must be killed for the crime? In the murder context, the Quran could have said simply, "The murderer must be killed!" But it doesn't. It is almost impossible to guess why! What could be the possible reason behind this ambiguity in Quran regarding one of the significant issues of human societies? The above verse deals with the murder. It seems it is replacing the previous rule given to Jews as the Hadith literature mentions: https://www.sunnah.com/bukhari/87/20 . Some suggest that the verse had a context, which is not mentioned in the Authentic Hadiths though. But that doesn't restrict its applicability to Muslims now. If muslims today are expected to take its instructions how should they understand and apply it? Furthermore, even if the suggested context is a battle settlement between two tribes, which had once fought with each other and later joined Islam, how can it be equal let alone justice if a freeman be killed now for a free man that was killed in the battle? Or, a slave to be killed now for a slave that had been killed before? Or, a woman be put to death now for a woman that had been killed earlier?

Context of this hadith? > A Muslim is not to be killed for the murder of a non-Muslim. [Al-Bukhari]

[Sahih Muslim 1676 a](https://sunnah.com/muslim:1676a) says > It is not permissible to take the life of a Muslim who bears testimony (to the fact that there is no god but Allah, and I am the Messenger of Allah, but in one of the three cases: the married adulterer, a life for life, and the deserter of his Din (Islam), abandoning the community. So in only 3 cases a Muslim can be killed. For adultery, for apostasy and for murder. However, in the case of murdering a non Muslim, a Muslim can’t be killed as said by the Prophet PBUH {source: [Sunan Ibn Majah 2660](https://sunnah.com/ibnmajah:2660)} Which leaves us with the last case: A Muslim murdering a Muslim. But in that case, he would be committing kufr {source: [Sahih Al-Bukhari 48](https://sunnah.com/bukhari:48)} . That means he would be committing apostasy. So in that case wouldn’t murder and apostasy come under the same line? Then why are they mentioned differently?