I would like to know the number of sajdas in Qur'an, and the exact verse numbers where performing a Sajda is required. Just mentioning the verses' numbers would be sufficient instead of referencing complete Ayat here, as it would become obligatory for the person reading the answer (you know what I mean) which may be inconvenient for some people. -Jazakallah.

I have heard that Quran recitation will not be accepted until you haven't performed prostration (sajda) which occur during recitation of Quran. Is it necessary to perform sajda?

While reading Quran, I know that there are ayahs (verses) for sujood (prostration). How is this performed? I'm a lady, so if I was reading the Quran without wearing hijab (scarf) and then reached a ayah where I had to perform sujood, what should I do? Do I put the quran to the side and then put hijab and perform? And what do you say while in sujood? Also are there other instructions or performance (sorry I don't know what to call it) in the Quran that I need to do? I know that there is a symbol for sujood, what are they? And are there any other symbols in the quran? Thank you for your help.

What is the proper procedure for performing Sajda Tilawah?

I was in fajr praying in a mosque today and in second Rakat the prayer leader said Takbir and everyone went direct into sujood. After takbir again everyone came back in qiyaam and continued the prayer normally, then ruku etc. What confused me is why the prayer leader said Takbir long and everyone went to sujood? What is it called or is fajr suppose me like that?

According to Abu Hanafi sajdah tilavah is obligatory. What is the ruling about the one who doesn't realized he just heard sajdah ayat? Can one make lots of tilavah sajdah in one go in order to compensate the ones he might missed and what happens if one makes sajdah more times than he should?

As the title suggests I sometimes forget to perform the niyah for fasting that particular day but I still fast and often I perform the niyah midday. >وَبِصَوْمِ غَدٍ نَّوَيْتُ مِنْ شَهْرِ رَمَضَانَ

As sallamuallay kum, i wanna ask that i have read a hadith which says who ever pray taraweeh behind the imam with complete witra. It is as if he prayed all night. But i wanna know that i pray taraweeh behind the imam and don't pray witra and come back home read quran and watch some islamic lectures and at night about 3-4am just before 30min in suhoor i pray 4 rakkat and 3 rakah witar as i have heard that we should complete our daily prayers with witra as the last. So do i get the same reward as praying taraweeh and witra behind imam ???

If I mispronounce words in salah, will it invalidate my prayer? For example, if I am reciting surah al nas, and in that, if I say 'qul audu..' instead of qul a'uzu, will it invalidate my prayer? Also am I invalidating my salah if I mispronounce: a) ط as ت b) ذ as د c) ص as س d) ق as ك e) ه as ح

My question is regarding forced marriage of one of my friend. She blindly believed her parents and they selected a guy for her. This all started with a lie regarding age and looks. She was first shown a photograph which was a bit older, she agreed and settled down for the engagement. From the day of engagement when she finally saw him, he is 36 year old full grown man and she is 24, she just can't imagine herself with him, plus they have nothing in common. Not a single thing. From last 2 years she is crying and shouting not to get married but no one listened. Sometimes, everyone kept on shouting at her. Sometimes, they totally stopped talking to her. She tried her best not to get married but eventually was forcefully married just because of these circumstances. Now while she is married she can't even look towards her husband; she fears him. They both have nothing in common. She is drowning. Everyone has disowned her sister. Her mother keeps shouting at her every time. She says she can never live being his wife. Everything was done forcefully. Is this right or wrong? It's been 2 years in which she has been shouting not to get married. Even before the nikah and haldi, she cried and tried to console everyone but no one listened. Is this marriage valid? Can a girl ask for divorce? Can they both live like husband and wife? As I've researched everywhere it shows this is invalid because the girl was not happy and was forced. She has a certain fear from him and she is scared if he'll force her into things, like getting intimate.

Assalamualaikum can anyone help refute an allegation that the Prophet SAW was "pleasure-seeking" (nauzubillah). There's a polemic going on that the Prophet's SAW marriages with the Mothers of the Believers weren't anything but "self-serving" and "ignoble" (astaghfirullah). This claim is allegedly backed up by the narrations below : >Volume 1, Parts II.90.1 > >Affan Ibn Muslim informed us: Abu al-Mundhir informed us on the authority of Thabit, he on the authority of Anas, he on the authority of the Prophet, may Allah bless him; he said: From mundane objects women and perfumes have been made pleasing to me and prayer (i.e., al-salat). > >Volume 1, Parts II.90.2 Musa Ibn Isma’il informed us: Abu Bishr Sahib al-Basri informed us on the authority of Yunus, he on the authority of al-Hasan; he said: The Apostle of Allah, may Allah bless him, said: I like not from worldly life but perfumes and women. > >Volume 1, Parts II.90.3 ‘Abd Allah Ibn Ja v far al-Raqqi informed us: Abu al-Mulayh informed us on the authority of Maymun; he said: The Apostle of Allah, may Allah bless him, did not receive from wordly luxuries except perfume and women. > >Volume 1, Parts II.90.5 Al-Fadl Ibn Dukayn informed us: Musa Ibn Qays al-Hadrami informed us on the authority of Salamah Ibn Kuhayl; he said: The Apostle of Allah, may Allah bless him, did not obtain any thing from wordly objects dearer to him than women and perfumes. > >Volume 1, Parts II.90.6 ‘Affan Ibn Muslim informed us: Abu Hilal informed us on the authority of Qatadah, he on the authority of Ma’qil Ibn Yasar; he said: Nothing was dearer to the Prophet of Allah, may Allah bless him, than a horse. Then he said: O Allah ! excuse me, nay ! the women. > >Volume 1, Parts II.90.4 Al-Fadl Ibn Dukayn informed us; Isra’il informed us on the authority of Abu Ishaq, he on the authority of a person who related on the authority of v Ayishah she said: The Prophet of Allah, may peace be on him, liked three worldly objects- perfume, women and food. He obtained two and did not obtain one. He obtained women and perfumes but did not get food. And.... >Volume 1, Parts 11.77. 1 > >'Ubayd Allah Ibn Musa informed us on the authority of Usamah Ibn Zayd, he on the authority of Safwan Ibn Sulaym, he said: The Apostle of Allah, may Allah bless him, said: Gabriel brought a kettle from which I ate and I was given the power of sexual intercourse equal to forty men. > >Volume 1, Parts II.77.2 > >Abu Ghassan Malik Ibn Isma'il informed us: Isra'il informed us on the authority of Layth, he on the authority of Mujahid; he said: The Apostle of Allah, may Allah bless him, was given the power equal to that of forty men and the people of paradise will be given the power equal to eighty men. > >Volume 1, Parts II.77.3 > >Muhammad Ibn 'Abd Allah al-Asadi and Qabisah Ibn 'Uqbah informed us; they said: Sufyan informed us on the authority of Ma'mar, he on the authority of Tawas; he said: The Prophet, may Allah bless him, was granted the power of sexual intercourse equal to that of forty men. I need help.

Like after reading surat al-fatiha you would then read another verse in every rak'ah but I don't know arabic, I am currently learning the 4 quls. So if I go to the masjid and the imam is reciting other verses in arabic then obviously I won't understand what they are saying. So do I just stay in silent during this time clueless to what is being said or should I recite a verse that I know while he is reading his own verse? And is there any point of me attending taraweeh prayer because I don't know arabic or the ayahs they readout?

Is using fake details online allowed? Sometimes companies ask for unnecessary information such as your phone number and sometimes they don't even need your name. Can I just put some fake details? What about creating an online persona?

As if a girl open up her breast in front of other girl and allow her close best friend to touched her breast?? It is halal or haraam?

I am trying to determine why I see so many references to right being good and left being bad. We see this not only in the reference to female prisoners of war as property that, "the right hands possess", but also in "the people of the right hand" and "people of the left hand", "the angel on your right side that records good deeds" and "the angel on your left side that records bad deeds", and many other hadiths. Was there something in the culture of the times that caused "what your right hands possess" to be an apt analogy for ownership of assets and people or would this still be perfectly applicable today? Similarly, was there something in the times making the right side better and were these concepts related? Some have said the following: https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/10492/does-the-right-side-have-a-higher-status-than-the-left However, answers like these do not feel complete given that some of my research suggests it may have been a matter of cleanliness and etiquette. This can inform whether the supremacy of the right is timeless or bound to the culture of time and place. Ultimately, it isn't deeply important but a matter of looking deeper to understand the roots of these phrasings and preferences. I appreciate the help of the community. Inshallah, you may bring greater wisdom and guidance to my understandings.

1. I just finished reading surah An-Nisaa' and I was wondering how the rules of inheritance found in ayat 11, 12 and 176 are applied regarding no parents, no siblings but 3 sons and 3 daughters and the wife of the man. How is the inheritance divided then? Or no parents, no siblings and no wife but 2 sons and 2 daughters or any other specific case. 2. Is there a rule where the first born son will get more than the second born son and without loss of generality does this apply also for the second born over the third born?

As is known, the majority of *hadith* literature available today was compiled well after the death of the prophet, due in part to the nigh-unmanageable number of questionable or downright fabricated *ahadith* which were being narrated. The [*hadith* sciences](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hadith_studies) were developed, giving scholars criteria with which to distinguish between [authentic *ahadith*](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/23/what-are-the-requirements-of-a-sahih-hadith) and [weak *ahadith*](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/8/how-do-we-make-sure-if-an-hadith-is-sahih-or-fake) . Take, for example, *Sahih Bukhari*. Bukhari was notoriously discriminating, and went through significant effort to collect and compile only the most authentic *ahadith* that he could; for the sake of argument let's assume that he was successful and that [this collection was 100% authentic](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/2419/is-sahih-bukhari-hadith-collection-100-authentic-and-if-yes-how-sunni-scholars) . However, this merely determines that these collected *ahadith* were authentic at that particular point in time. Given that these books were written centuries before any form of "perfect" scriptural reproduction was available, any copies made thereof would have to have been transcribed manually. And without any [original manuscripts to refer to](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/2506/original-copies-of-muhammad-al-bukharis-books) , any current references would be based upon these copies, or copies of copies. Due to simple human error, every manually-copied edition increases the chances of mistakes being introduced into the text, be it intentional or accidental. To me, this parallels very strongly with the earlier *hadith* sciences, wherein determining the authenticity of any particular *hadith* requires a thorough understanding of every narrator in the *isnad*. A *hadith* is only considered *sahih* if each and every narrator in the *isnad* is considered reliable. The only difference in the case of transcription is that this "narration" is transmitted textually, rather than orally. No hadith text I have seen lists a "scribal *isnad*;" the chain of narration, such as it is, tends to end with the fact that it was compiled by Bukhari. Given that any scribe between the original compilation and the invention of perfect digital copies may have (inadvertently) changed the text, what we have today as "Sahih Bukhari" may or may not be the original text compiled by Bukhari. I realize that just because I've not seen such a "scribal *isnad*" does not mean they do not exist (limited to English as I am, many *ahadith* do not even bother to translate the normal *isnad*), and I also realize that a number of *sahih ahadith* would've been recorded during that time in disparate enough works that they could (by the same parallel) be considered *mutawatir*, but I know little (if anything) about the sciences of *hadith* which specifically deal with *ahadith* after they're compiled. Do the extant *hadith* sciences account for such (potential) scribal errors, or must we resort to [textual criticism](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/1310/is-textual-criticism-important-to-islamic-studies) to determine authenticity? To put it another way, if (for example) Imam Bukhari were alive today, would he call any hadith, even those compiled in his own *Sahih*, "*sahih*"? (note that *Sahih Bukhari* was used as an example, but the question is applicable to any *hadith* which is called "*sahih*," regardless of where it was compiled or who authenticated it) --- Note: I am not asking about whether the hadith sciences themselves are valid; I'm asking about how or even whether they've *continued* to be valid in the same way over the thousand-plus years since they were developed.

I'm a tennis player and I have to go out to several countries to play tennis. There are women with revealing clothes. Can I see them without lusty eyes of course because of my work you know, some times the umpire is female and in hotel the receptionist is also female and etc but I heard the hadith that who ever see a non mahram on the day of qiyamat a rod of iron with lava put in ones eyes. So does this mean that I can't talk to any women even if it's because of my work and what is the ruling on touching or handshake without any lust. In several countries girls are open minded and if someone wins a match, he may need to shake hand with female umpire and sometime I need to practice with women, after practice we need to shake hand. So what's the ruling on this am I doing a sin? can I watch women's matches while they wear mini skirts while playing as I'm not watching them but just watching the match without any evil thoughts.

[Tanzil.net](http://tanzil.net/wiki/Medina_Mushaf) writes: >The Medina Mushaf ... publishes the holy quran according to **three famous narration**, i.e., *Hafs, Warsh, and Ad-Duriyy.* The Quran text provided by Tanzil is based on the Medina Mushaf, narration of Hafs. From there I came to know tht currently there are 3 there different versions of Quran. Digging up a little more, I found that there used to be several 'authentic' versions of Quran: >Even though the Hadith spoke of 7 versions, **Al-Tabari** concluded that **8** of the existing versions of the Quran were ‘authentic’ (later scholars increased this **to 10**) [[source](http://www.free-minds.org/which-quran)] Also, according to aforementioned source, ***Verse counts** for Hafs are 6236, while Warsh records 6214.* That source also lists some differences in these two Quran, and even more can be found in this [pdf](http://www.free-minds.org/sites/default/files/WhichQuran.pdf) . So, contrary to our firm believe that there has been no alteration in Quran, there are different versions of Quran. So which Quran should we follow and why? And why should there be different Qurans to begin with ? --- Update === After reading various suggestions, I came across this hadith: >Abû Qilaba narrated: >>It has reached me that the Prophet(P) said: "The Qur'an was sent down according to seven ahruf: command and prohibition, encouragement of good and discouragement of evil, dialectic, narrative, and parable." However, the [article](http://www.islamic-awareness.org/Quran/Text/Qiraat/hafs.html) went to explain it like this: *[use CTRL+F to jump into exact place]* >The forms matched the dialects of following seven tribes: Quraysh, Hudhayl, Thaqîf, Hawâzin, Kinânah, Tamîm and Yemen. The revelation of the Qur'an in seven different ahruf made its recitation and memorization much easier for the various tribes. Again reading reading further, we can find that : >Following the distribution of the official copies, all the other ahruf were **dropped** and the Qur'an began to be read in only **one harf**. Thus, the Qur'an which is available through out the world today is written and recited only according to the harf of Quraysh Why do we **still have many ahruf then**? It would be even more helpful if you could explain **how the ahruf map to various dialect**.

Bismillah. Alhamdulillahi rabbil-'alamin. Was-Salatu was-Salam 'ala Ashraful Anbiya Sayyidina Muhammad wa 'ala 'Alihi Muhammad. ---------- **What is the first sentence of verse 2:184 LITERALLY saying?** Arabic text is Translations we have are 1. "Prescribed number of days" as per Dr. Mustafa Khattab, the Clear Quran 2. "Fixed number of days" as per Muhammad Taqi-ud-Din al-Hilali & Muhammad Muhsin Khan 3. "A limited number of days" as per Saheeh International Although English is not my first language, these phrases, the translators are using, do not give the same meaning according to my understanding. They lead to different interpretation, don't they? For example, "fixed" means "always the same" whereas "a limited" means "may change but does not exceed limit".