[Hermaphrodite](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hermaphrodite) called Hijra in Pakistan/india and google tells me its **خنثى** in arabic. What do Islamic Laws of Inheritance says about them ?

I am aware that Islam encourages looking after the orphans. It also prohibits giving your own lineage in place of their original lineage (through a change in surname). But what is the ruling related to giving them inheritance after our death?

I am a Muslim and I am assured that QURAN is devine. I used to surf websites so I found that in an anti-Islamic site there was mentioned that inheritance shares are not summing as 1 I have searched regarding It but not satisfied and this question is haunting me for years. I believe that QURAN can't have contradictions so I should ask someone who is knowledgeable.(I don't know arabic ) sorry for grammatical mistakes edit- It is stated in the noble Quran: > Allah instructs you concerning your children: for the male, what is equal to the share of two females. But if there are [only] daughters, two or more, for them is two thirds of one's estate. And if there is only one, for her is half. And for one's parents, to each one of them is a sixth of his estate if he left children. But if he had no children and the parents [alone] inherit from him, then for his mother is one third. And if he had brothers [or sisters], for his mother is a sixth, after any bequest he [may have] made or debt. Your parents or your children - you know not which of them are nearest to you in benefit. [These shares are] an obligation [imposed] by Allah . Indeed, Allah is ever Knowing and Wise. > > And for you is half of what your wives leave if they have no child. But if they have a child, for you is one fourth of what they leave, after any bequest they [may have] made or debt. And for the wives is one fourth if you leave no child. But if you leave a child, then for them is an eighth of what you leave, after any bequest you [may have] made or debt. And if a man or woman leaves neither ascendants nor descendants but has a brother or a sister, then for each one of them is a sixth. But if they are more than two, they share a third, after any bequest which was made or debt, as long as there is no detriment [caused]. [This is] an ordinance from Allah , and Allah is Knowing and Forbearing. Surat > > [An-Nisā' 4:11-12](https://quran.com/4/11-13) I'm taking one of the cases in which a husband dies and leaves behind a wife, a daughters and his parents. Man dies leaving behind Wife is 1/8 = 3/24 Daughters 1/2 = 12/24 Father 1/6 = 4/24 Mother1/6 = 4/24 Total = 23/24 = .9583333333333333333 As you see the total is less than one. Another case of the same kind in which a husband dies and leaves behind a wife, 3 daughters and his parents. Man dies leaving behind Wife is 1/8 = 3/24 Daughters 2/3 = 16/24 Father 1/6 = 4/24 Mother1/6 = 4/24 Total = 27/24 = 1.125 Here the total is more than one. Am I calculating something wrong?

>A Hadith in Imam Malik's Muwatta Chapter: 27, Faraid 14 states Imam Malik's Muwatta >Yahya related to me from Malik from a reliable source of his who had heard Said ibn al-Musayyab say, ''Umar ibn al-Khattab refused to let anyone inherit from the non-arabs except for one who was born among the arabs." Malik said, "If a pregnant woman comes from the land of the enemy and gives birth in arab land so that he is her (an arab) child, he inherits from her if she dies, and she inherits from him if he dies, by the Book of Allah (al-Muwatta' ) Is this authenic if so can you explain it

I recently learnt that fadak was an endowment to fatima by the prophet of Islam and abu bakr confiscated it as per twelver Fadak came under prophet/muslims in 628 CE. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conquest_of_Fadak Zaynab bint Muhammad died in 629 CE. Umm kulsum bint Muhammad died in 630 CE. Twelver say fadak was endowment and not inheritance. Even if it's assumed if this is endowment are we accepting that prophet did injustice to zaynab and umm kulthum by not gifting them anything? Is this a slander on the prophet of Islam? I believe quran orders the parents to be just and equal in giving gifts to children.

AoA, What is the law for inheritance for a second wife who has a kid from previous marriage when the man has also 2 kids from a previous marriage and has divorced his first wife? The couple doesn't want to have children from the new marriage as each has child/ren already from their previous marriage. JazakAllah

I was trying to find a ruling in Surah Nisa (v 7-14) but was unsuccessful. What is the ijtehad among the Ulema on how the wealth of a female Muslim is to be distributed if she has no parents, no husband, no siblings and no children after her? Do we have anything in the Quran or the Sahih Hadiths that guide in this matter?

In the medieval stories of King Arthur, Sir Morien was the son of a British (Christian) knight and a Moorish (and thus presumably Muslim) princess. His parents met when his father visited his mother's country, the two fell in love, and then his father returned back to his home country without marrying Morien's mother. Within the story itself, Sir Morien ventured forth on a quest to his father's country with the aim of finding his father and convincing him to return back to his mother so that they could be wed, and Sir Morien himself would eventually be able to inherit the crown of his mother's kingdom as a now-legitimate child. In the end, after some questing and some duels with Arthur's knights, he finds his father and convinces him to return to wed his mother. Happy endings for everybody. Of course, this story was written by someone in medieval Europe who would have had no idea of how the Islamic culture or legal system worked. What would the legal situation of someone in Morien's circumstances be, under Islamic law and custom? Would he be potentially able to inherit the rulership his mother's kingdom, with or without his father returning to marry his mother? Would his father returning to marry his mother actually change anything?

My question is about the issue detailed in this topic: [Inheritance shares don't add up to 1](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/1408/inheritance-shares-dont-add-up-to-1) . Please read the whole message carefully though, this is not exactly a duplicate. To sum up the point, the Quran contains inheritance laws that specify the shares due to various members of the family of the deceased. Now, there are configurations where the shares add up to more than one. Now, as has been mentioned in the post I linked, several attempts have been made to fix the issue. The traditional answer would be to use the rules of "Awl" and "Usbah", that is to proportionally change the shares so that all of them add up to 1. Another approach is to keep the shares as stated in the Quran but to distribute the inheritance according to priority rules so that the shares add up to 1 or less. I am dubious however that this last approach works in general. Consider the case of a woman who dies leaving nor ascendants nor descendants, but only her husband and two sisters. Sisters is to be taken with the meaning it has in 4:176, whatever you think the difference is with verse 4:12. Then 4:12 and 4:176 taken together unambiguously state that in that case, the husband should get 1/2 and the sisters 2/3 which adds up to 7/6 > 1. If you don't add man-made laws to the Quran and yet want to keep the shares as stated, priority rules won't work here. Thus, the most rational way would be to reduce the shares proportionnally (that would be 3/7 for the husband 4/7 for the sisters in that specific case). For another example, you may consider the case of a man leaving behind a wife (share: 1/8), a daughter (share: 2/3) and a father and a mother (1/6 each) which adds up to 27/24. Hence comes the problem. To make sense, it seems that the Quran somewhat needs to be corrected; is other words, the command "give 1/2 to the husband and 2/3 to the sisters", stated as is, sounds absurd and either you conclude that the law of inheritance can't be applied or you're forced to correct it (i.e to literally infringe the original command) to apply the mere "mentality" of it. Please note that my question really differs from that of the post I mentioned above. I don't expect a comprehensive list of all approaches that have been developed to apply the law of inheritance. I'd really like the discussion to bear on the idea that the Quran's law may need some correcting to be applied.

1. I just finished reading surah An-Nisaa' and I was wondering how the rules of inheritance found in ayat 11, 12 and 176 are applied regarding no parents, no siblings but 3 sons and 3 daughters and the wife of the man. How is the inheritance divided then? Or no parents, no siblings and no wife but 2 sons and 2 daughters or any other specific case. 2. Is there a rule where the first born son will get more than the second born son and without loss of generality does this apply also for the second born over the third born?

Assalam o Allaikum everyone. This question is from a very dear friend of mine and I'll narrate as she did to me: > **"My mom recently died. We are 4 sisters in total and our father is still alive. Before her death, mom made 4 portions of her gold > belongings, wrote our names on each of them and told everyone to open > them after her death. Now when she died our father told us to take > those gold portions as per the name written on them.** > > **The issue arose when my brother-in-law told a mufti about it and now he is forcing us all to return the gold to our father as our mom only > verbally told us but not in writing. I want to know even when my mom > told in front of everyone that who should keep her belongings then why > does this mufti say that her words don't matter anymore because she is > dead."** Please assist me with this one. Thank You.

we are two sisters and two brothers. My Father, when alive, transferred the property to my two brothers when they were minors at age of 9 years and 7 years respectively. The property remained in my brothers name and my father died. Now we both sisters are claiming the share in property as it was of our fathers. But my brothers are saying that the property belongs to them. My question is , how can the property belongs to my brothers, though it was transferred to their name when they were only minors??? Please advise what does sharia says about this?? and how we solve this distribution issue amongst us in an amicable manner???

My father has land . He has 4 daughters and no sons . He does not divide the land and give to daughters . He doesn't like to give . He says, take the land after I died. **What's the Islamic ruling on this ? Is he allowed to do so or is he doing wrong ?**

A chimera is essentially a single organism that's made up of cells from two or more "individuals"—that is, it contains two sets of DNA, with the code to make two separate organisms. *One way that chimeras can happen naturally in humans is that a fetus can absorb its twin.* I stumbled across a 2015 case where a child's DNA turned to be his uncles and not his father. But what was more shocking was that the father didn't have a brother! What science learned from this changed our entire perspective. The father was a chimera who absorbed his fraternal twin, who also happened to be a male. Inside, the father’s sperm was 90% himself and 10% his twin brother. His son only inherited the absorbed brother’s sperm, though. From this, a man who was never born managed to have a child of his own. From an Islamic perspective, I'd like to inquire who can we consider the father to be? **Link:** https://time.com/4091210/chimera-twins/ **P.S** I understand that such genetic details might not have been available 1400+ years ago. But do the ulema of today have any ijtehad on such matters from Hadiths?

Is the biological father of an illegitimate daughter mahram to her? If not, does she have to do Hijab from him? And does she not inherit property from him?

I heard that in Islam a boy will not get anything from his grandfather's property if his (the boy's) father has died before the grandfather. Shouldn't it be the other way round that the boy gets extra in case his father has passed away as he would be more needy compared to say his paternal cousin whose father is still alive?

I read that a person can not ask for more than one-third of their assets to be spent on charity in their will, and the remaining two-third should be divided according to Quran's laws. But I can't find the verse saying this. Can you please tell me if this has been specified in Quran or not?

I am a Muslim living in the UK. My mother lent me £25,000 so I could pay off my remaining mortgage in full. It was agreed that I would pay it back in instalments. Nothing was written down in the form of a contract. My mortgage is now paid off thanks to my mum helping me out. Unfortunately my mother died shortly after giving me the money. I have 2 sisters and 1 brother. My father has passed away also. I have no other family in the UK. What do I do now? When I say 'lent me £25,000' that means she loaned me that money from her savings. Also, my mother did not leave a will. I want to do things in an Islamic way. What does Islamic law say I should do next? Thanks for the response pokhim, I appreciate what the honourable thing to do is, as you say in your answer, but what I actually want to know is what does Sharia law say I should do in this matter?

According to Qu'ran 8:41 >And know that anything you obtain of war booty - then indeed, for Allah is one fifth of it and for the Messenger and for [his] near relatives and the orphans, the needy, and the [stranded] traveler, if you have believed in Allah and in that which We sent down to Our Servant on the day of criterion - the day when the two armies met. And Allah, over all things, is competent. and Qu'ran 17:26 >And give the relative his right, and [also] the poor and the traveler, and do not spend wastefully. There is also 59:7 >And what Allah restored to His Messenger from the people of the towns - it is for Allah and for the Messenger and for [his] near relatives and orphans and the [stranded] traveler - so that it will not be a perpetual distribution among the rich from among you. And whatever the Messenger has given you - take; and what he has forbidden you - refrain from. And fear Allah ; indeed, Allah is severe in penalty. Yet Fadak, which was acquired through war, was not granted to Fatima by Abu Bakr, the first Caliph, after the Prophet (pbuh) passed away. What was Abu Bakrs reasoning given the explicit commandments in the ayats above and how valid was this in the view of later scholarship?

A few years ago I heard that some non-Muslim "Pop-Star" wanted the sperms from her husband to be kept for later in-vitro fertilization as she and her husband failed to conceive and he also had cancer. So what if a woman wanted to have a child from her husband and unfortunately he died, but she could do an in-vitro (or test-tube) fertilization would that be halal in Islam? And on what basis would it be considered halal or haram (For example: because her husband died he (and therefore "intercourse" with him or his sperms) would be considered haram for her)? What if she did so when she knew he would die for example? I think this could also be a major issue for inheritance matters ('idah)!