The author Muhammad Salih Al-Munajjid at Islamqa.info in Fatwa # 3801 has stated the following:- Al-Bukhaari reported in his Saheeh (no. 250) that ‘Aa’ishah said: “The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him)and I used to bathe from one vessel.” Al-Haafiz said in al-Fath: “Al-Daawoodi interpreted this to mean that it is permissible for a man to look at his wife’s ‘awrah and vice-versa. **This is supported by the report narrated by Ibn Hibbaan via Sulaymaan ibn Moosa, who was asked about a man looking at his wife’s private parts. He said: ‘I asked ‘Aa’ishah, and she referred to this hadeeth.’ This is evidence in this matter.** And Allaah knows best.” [Source:- https://islamqa.info/en/answers/3801/husband-and-wife-taking-a-bath-together-and-looking-at-one-anothers-private-parts] **My main question is: where can I find Sulayman ibn Musa's narration in Sahih Ibn Hibban where he stated that Aisha (Radhi'allahu'anha) referred to the hadith in Bukhari when she was asked about whether a man could look at the private parts of her wife? Can someone please point out the narration in Sahih Ibn Hibban?**

Analyzing the chain (isnad) of hadith is essential for authentication. Comparison of the content (matn) of the hadiths can also be very helpful. I am looking for any computational tools that may exist for tracking chains of narrations or keeping up with all the different narrators, discontinuities, etc for different hadiths. Additionally, having a tool that could easily compare hadith contents would be helpful. I guess I could make my own for content analysis, I think, based on sunnah.con's API (IIRC). Anything and everything that could be helpful would be appreciated! Even a family tree of narrators would be nice.

Salam Guys, I would request my readers to not to mark this question as duplicate. This question is a bit different from the [previous question](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/61209/what-is-the-status-of-narrator-minhal-ibn-amr-did-scholars-really-rejected-his) I asked about narrator Minhal Ibn Amr. My question is about particular narrations that come from Al-A'mash through Minhal Ibn Amr. According to [THIS](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/46316/did-prophet-isa-go-to-the-cross/46325#46325) source it has been stated that both Yahya ibn Ma'īn and Adh-Dhahabi had reasons to weaken narrations that came from Al-A'mash through Al-Minhāl ibn 'Amr. **The problem here is that the user III-AK-III who posted his answer did not cite any reference in order to prove that Yahya bin Ma'in and Ad-Dhahabi actually weakened the narrations that come from Al-A'mash through Minhal Ibn Amr.** Al-A'mash and Minhal were Kufi and met each other. Both of them have also narrated narrations in Bukhari. **The main question is: where is the evidence that suggests that Yahyah bin Ma'in and Ad-Dhahabi weakened the narration that come from Al-A'mash through Minhal Ibn Amr?**

Is the frequenctly quoted hadith authentic **"الکاسب حبیب اللہ"** ? If yes, then in which book ?

I am searching for the reliablity of the narrator Abdul-Rahman Bin Abi Bakrah. He can be found in Bukahri here:- https://sunnah.com/bukhari/79/47 He is also found in one of the text of a narration in Imam Muwatta here:- https://sunnah.com/urn/511660 But why did Mullah Ali Qari regarded him as a weak narrator in Mirqat al-Mafatih? Can someone please trace down the following statement from Mullah Ali Qari in his Mirqat al- Mafatih:- **رواه الترمزي و قال غريب و في اسناده عبد الرحمان بن ابي بكرا المليكي نضعف** (Mirqat, Volume 5, Page 466) Thanks.

I am trying to find on google and specially on sunnah.com Is there any hadith whose approximate meaning is as follow: "O ye pepple who have professed Islam as mere exercise of the tongue and belief has not gone to your hearts {not become a strong conviction), do not cause distress to Muslims (injuring their feelings), nor put them to shame, nor be after fault-finding with them. Those who pursue others doggedly seeking their faults Allah shall pursue their faults. And whom Allah pursues for their faults, He will bring them to ignominy, even if they remain hidden in their houses"

What is the authenticity of the following narration:- > Abu Umamah narrated: > > “The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) supplicated with many supplications of > which we did not preserve a thing. We said: ‘O Messenger of Allah, you > supplicated with many supplications of which we did not preserve a > thing.’ He (ﷺ) said: ‘Should I not direct you to what will include all > of that? That you say: O Allah, we ask You from the good of what Your > Prophet Muhammad (ﷺ) asked You for, and we seek refuge in You from the > evil of that which Your Prophet Muhammad (ﷺ) sought refuge in You > from, and You are the one from Whom aid is sought, and it is for You > to fulfill, and there is no might or power except by Allah." (Jami` > at-Tirmidhi 3521) I found this narration in book of Adhkar I have, but when I checked it on Sunnah.com, I saw that it was marked as "Daif".

**The excerpt says that this was supposedly authenticated hy Imam Ibn Qayyim in his work called Madarijus Salikin. Is this true?**

I have found a really strange narration that says that the Nutfah of men travel in the veins and muscles of women. This is the original text of the hadith:- فقد ثبت عن مالك بن الحويرث أنه قال: قال رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم: إذا أراد الله جل اسمه أن يخلق النسمة فجامع الرجل المرأة طار ماؤه في كل عرق وعصب منها فإذا كان اليوم السابع أحضر الله له كل عرق بينه وبين آدم ثم قرأ في أي صورة ما شاء ركبك This is found in [Mu'ajam Al-Kabeer At-Tabrani](https://hadith.islam-db.com/single-book/477/%D8%A7%D9%84%D9%85%D8%B9%D8%AC%D9%85-%D8%A7%D9%84%D9%83%D8%A8%D9%8A%D8%B1-%D9%84%D9%84%D8%B7%D8%A8%D8%B1%D8%A7%D9%86%D9%8A/287705/16021) , [Mu'ajam A-Sagheer At- Tabarani](https://hadith.islam-db.com/single-book/476/%D8%A7%D9%84%D9%85%D8%B9%D8%AC%D9%85-%D8%A7%D9%84%D8%B5%D8%BA%D9%8A%D8%B1-%D9%84%D9%84%D8%B7%D8%A8%D8%B1%D8%A7%D9%86%D9%8A/280763/106) , and in [Mu'ajam Al-Awsat At-Tabarani](https://hadith.islam-db.com/single-book/475/%D8%A7%D9%84%D9%85%D8%B9%D8%AC%D9%85-%D8%A7%D9%84%D8%A3%D9%88%D8%B3%D8%B7-%D9%84%D9%84%D8%B7%D8%A8%D8%B1%D8%A7%D9%86%D9%8A/280459/1642) . According to [THIS SOURCE](https://www.islamweb.net/ar/fatwa/72781/%D8%AF%D8%B1%D8%AC%D8%A9-%D8%AD%D8%AF%D9%8A%D8%AB-%D8%A5%D8%B0%D8%A7-%D8%A3%D8%B1%D8%A7%D8%AF-%D8%A7%D9%84%D9%84%D9%87-%D8%A3%D9%86-%D9%8A%D8%AE%D9%84%D9%82-%D8%A7%D9%84%D9%86%D8%B3%D9%85%D8%A9) , the narration in question is authentically reported through a sound chain of narrators, according to Ibn Manda and it is also recorded in Silsila As-Sahiha by Albani! However, there is a Hadith in [Sahih Muslim](https://sunnah.com/muslim:2645c) that says that semen "stays" in the womb of women. It doesn't say that semen reaches other parts of a woman. According to [THIS SOURCE](https://ghayb.com/the-decree/) , Ibn Masud (RA) is reported to have said that the Nutfah of men travel to hair and nails of a woman. Moreover, it also descends back to the womb! It says, It has been narrated from Ibn Mas’ud in other ways. As for his words “The creation of any one of you is gathered in the belly of his mother for forty days as a drop,” their explanation is narrated from Ibn Mas’ud. Al-A’mash narrated from Khaythamah that Ibn Mas’ud said, “***When the drop falls into the womb she conceives in every hair and nail. Then it remains for forty days and then it descends into the womb and becomes a clot”*** He said, “That is its ‘gathering’.” Ibn Abi Hatim and others narrated it. ***So, how can we reconcile these two hadith with modern science?***

I recently came across the following Hadith and was wondering if anyone has a collection of Hadith from Imam Jaffar or Imam Baqir to Hazrat Ali in the Sunni Hadith collections. Would be very interesting to see that chain of isnad. ***Imam ‘Abdur Razzaq (rahimahullah) has recorded this Hadith on the authority of Muhammad Al Baqir (rahimahullah); the great-grandson of Sayyiduna ‘Ali ibn Abi Talib (radiyallahu ‘anhu). Muhammad ibn ‘Ali ibn Husayn (rahimahullah) reported that Rasulullah (sallallahu ‘alayhi wa sallam) said: “It is ill-mannered/discourteous that I am mentioned in the presence of an individual and he does not invoke blessings [salutations/durud] upon me.” (Musannaf ‘Abdur Razzaq, Hadith: 3121) ‘Allamah Sakhawi (rahimahullah) has declared the narrators reliable (thiqat). (Al Qawlul Badi’, pg. 311. Also see: Nataijul Afkar, vol. 4 pg. 36)***

The Qur'anic verse 65.4 revelation circumstance is mentioned in tafsir of ibn kathir and others like Abu ibn hatim https://quranx.com/Tafsirs/65.4 Particularly this part-Ibn Abi Hatim recorded a simpler narration than this one from Ubay bin Kab who said, "O Allah's Messenger! When the Ayah in Surat Al-Baqarah was revealed prescribing the Iddah of divorce, some people in Al-Madinah said, There are still some women whose Iddah has not been mentioned in the Qur'an. There are the young, the old whose menstruation is discontinued, and the pregnant.' And Ubay bin Ka`b that he said, "O Allah's Messenger! Some women were not mentioned in the Qur'an, the young, the old and the pregnant.'' Are these Hadiths authentic?I have not been able to find anything about chain of transmission for these hadiths Thanks in advance Edit- I was able to find chain of transmission of this hadith from respected scholar Ibn Jarir tabari (may Allah have mercy on his soul),I am adding that,can anyone tell me the grading of this?

I am not sure if this is question is off topic, but surely it is related to Islam or the understanding of Islam. The question is, **What would be an academic understanding of Islam, from a non-Muslims point of view?** In this question, one should consider all these sub questions: - What fundamental rules would one use to understand (the message of) Islam? - How is ones attitude towards scholars and their opinions? Could one agree with scholars opinions which surely are based by their fundamental rules, which might not be the same as yours? - How would one choose what is "Islamic" and what isn't? And what does one define "Islamic"? - How would one avoid choosing opinions that increases ones reason of not believing in Islam as a religion from God? - Could one base his understanding of Islam by the more salafi way of understanding it? i.e "well the salaf says this, and believes this... therefore this is Islam". - How would one interpret matters that could be contradictory? Like if a hadith and a verse in the Quran contradict each other. Would one look at that in a more objective way? I.e Analysing it by depth or just saying "I just found a contradiction!" and ignore other acceptable explanations? How would one know what true contradictions are (if there are any), and which aren't? Here is a scenario, if a muslim asks the non muslim which has an academic understanding of islam; asking him the following: "Is it halal to eat meat in Mcdonalds?" Should the non muslim scholar answer in what he knows most muslim scholars would say: "no it is haram", or may he say something like: "In my understanding of the Quran and Sunnah, eating all meat is Halal (except Pig, blood, and self dead animals, and animals sacrificed to different "gods"), so yes you could eat meat there! Even though you should know that most scholars says it is haram" I am looking for the view of a non-Muslim.

If someone steals a small amount of money(from a lot of individuals) and gives it all to charity, is that person doing a good thing or a bad thing? He/She isn't benefiting anything from this. If it was for personal benefit, that person can just steal all the money and keep it to themselves (or even keep some - if not all - of it to themseves like most theives do). However, all that money is used to either do good (helping poor people, planting trees, making the world a better place etc.), or get more money to do more good. The amount stolen from each individual won't affect that individual's life (e.g. some change in a bill), that he/she might not even notice. However, when all the small amounts are added up, this money can be used to do a lot of good things. The person who is stealing that money and giving it to charity is working hard(daily) not to get caught and keep the operation going. However, he/she is doing this in his/her free time to leave the world a better place than he found it. Should a person with the ability to do this, do it? Is it allowed to try to make the world a better place using methods that others mostly exploit for personal benefit? God has given me the power to do this, and I want to use it for good and have millions donated to charity. This can be done with complete anonymity, and without any effect on my personal life. Should I do this and make the world a better place, or is it forbidden?

In the name of Allah the Compassionate, Merciful. I want to talk about the necessary things that need to be done if I get some prostatic fluid on my clothes. If I'm on the bathroom, I'd inshallah be alright, because I'd easily be able to wash, but not so much if I'm out in public. There are a number of sayings, or hadiths, around 29, that I found at sunnah.com , about this situation. Most of them included some form of washing the private part or washing the clothe. I also care about the opinions of the scholars, especially the four main schools of thought in the Sunni branch of Islam. For example, for washing the clothes, here is one, Sunan Abi Dawud 210 , > Narrated Sahl ibn Hunayf: > >I felt greatly distressed by the frequent flowing of prostatic fluid. For this reason I used to take a bath very often. I asked the apostle of Allah (ﷺ) about this. He replied: Ablution will be sufficient for you because of this. I asked: Messenger of Allah, what should I do if it smears my clothes. He replied: It is sufficient if you take a handful of water and sprinkle it on your clothe when you find it has smeared it. Here is one of those about washing the private part, > Yahya related to me from Malik from Zayd ibn Aslam from his father that Jundub, the mawla of Abdullah ibn Ayyash, said, "I asked Abdullah ibn Umar about prostatic fluid and he said, 'When you find it, wash your genitals and do wudu as for prayer.' " So, are these only recommended or is washing the private part and the stain necessary?

Some of the Muslim Jurists and Scholars have derived the verdict that 9:5 is a command to wage war that is general to polytheists collectively and not specific to those polytheists who break the treaties. For example Imam shafi’i who extended the scope from polytheists to Kuffar in general and said it essentially permits killing their Men provided they don’t have a covenant. Imam al Shafi’i said: > Allah protected blood and limited the taking of wealth, except for right, by belief in Allah and in his Messenger or through a promise given by the believers, based on the law of Allah and His Messenger, to the Kitabis. He allowed shedding the blood of Mature Men who withhold themselves from belief and who do not possess a Promise. **[ [Kitab al Umm 1/293](https://al-maktaba.org/book/1655/278#p1) ]** There is also Ibn Taymiyyah who wrote it commands jihad against everyone. Presumably everyone of the polytheists. Ibn Taymiyyah said: > ...When Allah revealed bara’ah and commanded the Prophet to end the indefinite agreements, he could no longer make agreements as he used to do. Rather he was obligated to wage jihad against everyone, as Allah says in the verse...(9:5) **[ [Majmu Fatawa 19/20](https://shamela.ws/book/7289/9537#p1) ]** And most surprisingly of all, it appeared Ibn Hazm the literalist considered 9:5 to be a command to war that is general over the polytheists collectively also, Ibn Hazm said: > Ibn Hazm said: “And the statements of Allah: ‘(9.5)’. And: (9.29)... are indicative of Allah the Exalted not acknowledging and nullifying every treaty, thus leaving the polytheists no course but to accept Islam, or be fought. While the opportunity to pay the Jizyah in a state of humiliation, is specifically for the People of the Issue **[ [Muhalla 5/362](https://al-maktaba.org/book/767/2058#p1) ]** And the reason why I was surprised by Ibn Hazm’s opinion the most out of all of these scholars is that I expected him as a literalist to even more so take into account the preceding and succeeding text of 9:5 which to me suggests 9:5 is not general to all polytheists, but specific to polytheists who break treaties. > This is a declaration of repudiation by Allah and His Apostle to the polytheists with whom you had made a treaty: Travel in the land for four months, but know that you cannot thwart Allah, and that Allah shall disgrace the faithless.This is an announcement from Allah and His Apostle to all the people on the day of the greater ḥajj that Allah and His Apostle repudiate the polytheists: If you repent that is better for you; but if you turn your backs [on Allah], know that you cannot thwart Allah, and inform the faithless of a painful punishment except the polytheists with whom you have made a treaty, and who did not violate any [of its terms] with you backed anyone against you. So fulfill the treaty with them until [the end of] its term. Indeed Allah loves the Godwary >Then, when the sacred months have passed, kill the polytheists wherever you find them, capture them and besiege them, and lie in wait for them at every ambush. But if they repent, and maintain the prayer and give the zakāt, then let them alone. Indeed Allah is all-forgiving, all-merciful... >How? For if they get the better of you, they will observe toward you neither kinship nor covenant They please you with their mouths while their hearts spurn you; and most of them are transgressors... >But if they break their pledges after their having made a treaty and revile your religion, then fight the leaders of unfaith —indeed they have no [commitment to] pledges— maybe they will relinquish. Will you not make war on a people who broke their pledges and resolved to expel the Apostle, and opened [hostilities] against you initially? Do you fear them? But Allah is worthier of being feared by you, should you be faithful.and remove rage from their hearts, **[ 9:1- 15 ]** Apologies for the wall of text but it was necessary to illustrate my objection to the global interpretation of 9:5 . You can see based on the text I highlighted that it appears 9:5 is clearly specific to only the treaty breaking Polytheists. But given that, then how could a non negligible number of masters of Islamic Knowledge have concluded 9:5 is general to all polytheists? Am I just misreading the text..could it be that 9:5 means all the treaties are finished after the sacred months and whether the polytheists honoured the treaties or not they are all to be slain until they submit to Islam? But the verses after this command indicate the reason for killing is their breaking the treaties... > Will you not make war on a people who broke their pledges and resolved to expel the Apostle, and opened [hostilities] against you initially? Do you fear them? But Allah is worthier of being feared by you, should you be faithful.and remove rage from their hearts,

In this hadith, Aisha is said to play with dolls: > A'ishah, may Allaah be pleased with her, narrated that she used to > play with dolls in the presence of the Prophet, sallallaahu ʻalayhi wa > sallam, and that her friends also used to play with her. When the > Prophet, sallallaahu ʻalayhi wa sallam, would enter (her dwelling > place), they used to hide, but the Prophet, sallallaahu ʻalayhi wa > sallam, would call them to join and play with her. (Fath Al-Bari, page > 143, Vol.13) According to Al-Khattabi and Ibn Battal, this meant that Aisha didn't hit puberty, since dolls were considered idols: > Ibn Battaal may Allaah have mercy upon him commented on this hadeeth, > saying, “The hadeeth indicates that the toys that young girls play > with are allowed, meaning dolls, which are essentially statues. We do > not find an interpretation for this concession except that it is > granted to young children for playing with.” [Sharh Saheeh Al-Bukhari] > > Al-Khattabi commented on this hadeeth, saying, ‘It is deduced from > this hadeeth that playing with dolls is not like the amusement with > other images concerning which the threat of punishment is mentioned. > Rather, it was deemed permissible for ʻAa'ishah to play with these > dolls because she had not yet reached puberty then.’ (Source ) Is this a general rule (playing with dolls is idol worship before puberty)? If so, please name the scholars. I have been told there are other scholars who claim that there was an exception for Aisha. Who are these scholars in question.

What is Fiqh of Nikah of Male Slave owned by someone else to free woman? I mean a male slave who is owned by someone else and marries a free woman who is not related to her master nor is her mistress. What is rule related to the children born from such marriage? I know the marriage of freeing man to someone's slave girl and the children born of it are owned by masters.

السلام عليكم When is ownership of spoils of war and captives established for soldiers? Do spoils of war and captives have to be transferred from Dar al Harb to Dar Al Islam before establishing ownership? Did any Madhab allow the distribution of spoils of war & captives among soldiers in Dar Al Harb?

Who implements the punishment of Qisas or Hadd if the convict is a slave? Is it Master of Slave or a person appointed by the Qadhi? **Specifically Want to Know the position of Hanbali Madhab.**

I heard that things which are sold in numbers like for example egg or watermelon which are usually sold based on quantity of numbers rather than weight or volume cannot be ribawiyat meaning If I borrowed today 10 eggs tomorrow creditors can ask for more than 10 eggs. How correct is this as per fiqh?