I have got thoughts related to kufar and even I accept it for a in my heart for a while in my mind and heart. Then I reject those thoughts by my heart and soul and make tauba. Please guide me if it is really a kufar

> You will surely find the most intense of the people in animosity toward the believers [to be] the Jews and those who associate others with Allah; and you will find the nearest of them in affection to the believers those who say, "We are Christians." That is because among them are priests and monks and because they are not arrogant. According to this ayah, Jews and idol worshippers (e.g., Hindus) will be the staunchest enemies of Muslims. On the other hand, practicing Christians (of any denomination) will be in favor of Muslims. If we consider the current world politics and domestic politics of various countries, this seems to be 50% true and 50% untrue. For example, according to the Pew Research 2019 survey, Eastern European Catholic countries are overwhelmingly anti-Muslim. Also, American evangelical Christians are overwhelmingly anti-Muslim. **So, how is this ayah justified?**

My girlfriend wants to give me a hug and neither of us are married or anything could I hug her back or not? My girlfriend is not muslim and she is able to hug me. Would it be Haram if I was to hug her?

As a follow-up to https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/84052/55518 how can one find and ask a mufti? Who can ask a mufti? Only Islamic people or others as well? (I'm quite sure the tags for that can be improved, If someone can, please do so.)

In the Quran Allah says he released the two water source freshwater and salt water. Put barrier between them so they don't transgress. > He released the two seas, meeting [side by side]; (19) Between them is a barrier [so] neither of them transgresses. (20) So which of the favors of your Lord would you deny? (55:19-21 ) Quran 25:55 and 55:19-21. Ibn KATHIR and bunch of other scholars explained the barrier is dry land that prevent the saltwater transgressing against freshwater. Meaning sea doesn't destroy the freshwater sources. There is something call saltwater intrusion, it's due to sea lvl rising or strom or land eroding due to high tide or storm etc. (I am only referring to natural cause not human induced like climate change cause it etc.). So how to understand the verse when it says they don't transgress but here we know naturally there are time when salt water intrusion happens, and it destroys the freshwater sources. Also I looked into the explanation of salt water and fresh water don't mix due to saline lvl. This modern argument don't fit cuz given enough time it does mix. I don't mean to cast any doubts, may Allah forgive me for if I said something wrong?

We know Quran is a concise book, not a single word there is without reason. Every single word is decorated and managed like a pearl in necklace, and not a single word wasted but when you see the **Surah Rahman** a single ayah "Fabe-aiye alae ..." repeated 31 times. What could be the reason of using it again and again?

- As per 9:5, Jihad is warranted against all Mushrikin (except Daar al-'Ahd) - As per 9:7, It is said that only Mu'ahadat made at al-Masjid al-Haram are valid - As per 9:28, Mushrikin are not allowed to come near al-Masjid al-Haram Mushrikin includes all non-Muslims, but Ahl al-Kitab has the option of paying Jizya to become Ahl al-Dhimma as per 9:29. But that doesn't explain formation of a Mu'ahadah to become Daar al-'Ahd. As per Tafsir Ibn Kathir on 9:6, the Ahl al-Harb are allowed to come in to Daar al-Islam as Musta'min to make Mu'ahadat with the Muslims. > In summary, those who come from a land at war with Muslims to the area of Islam, delivering a message, for business transactions, **to negotiate a peace treaty**, to pay the Jizyah, to offer an end to hostilities, and so forth, and request safe passage from Muslim leaders or their deputies, should be granted safe passage, as long as they remain in Muslim areas, until they go back to their land and sanctuary. How is this possible if al-Masjid al-Haram is off limits? As per the Tafsir Tazkirul Quran by Maulana Wahiduddin Khan, no further treaty was signed with the Ahl al-'Ahd (Banu Kinana, Banu Khuza’a, Banu Dhamra) after the expiry of their treaties. That seems about right. So, are Muslims not violating the Islamic Ahkam by having Mu'ahadat signed with Mushirikin? That too, being not in fixed terms. What are the views on the matter by the Madhaahib? Is this only done strategically and by breach of Ahkam for the greater purpose of calling more people to Islam?

If can look and touch a mahram then why can't I enjoy sexual realations as well? please provide specific evidence to support your answer.

In the Quran: >Allah taught Adam all the names of everything, then He showed them to the angels and said: "Tell Me the names of these if you are truthful." They (angels) said: "Glory be to You, we have no knowledge except what You have taught us. Verily, it is You, the All-Knower, the All-Wise." > >He said: "O Adam! Inform them of their names," and when he had informed them of their names, He said: "Did I not tell you that I know the unseen in the heavens and the earth, and I know what you reveal and what you have been hiding?" The Angels say that they have no knowledge except what Allah has taught them. Are their names unknown to them as Allah has not told them - in which case why does Allah ask Adam to tell the Angels their names rather than Himself, or do they know their names but have hidden it from Allah?

If one is born a Muslim, does that person still has to say the Shahada, or he/she won't be considered a Muslim?

Recollecting from very long ago. I remember hearing in a Jumua some Hadith about having too many possessions. It went something like "In a house there should be at most three blankets (or was it bedsheets?). One for the man of the house and one for the lady and one for the guest. The fourth is for the devil". My recollection could be only partially correct. Can you help me identify the source of the Hadith?

Hitting the bare face of someone is considered to be haram based on the hadiths of the prophet (PBUH): > “When any one of you fights, **let him avoid (striking) the face**.” (Narrated by al-Bukhaari, al-Fath, 5/215). > > ‘**Stone her, but avoid the face.**’ (Narrated by Abu Dawood, 4/152) Of course, it is seen that Islam values and acknowledges the sanctity and nobleness of the face and hence forbids it from being struck. If one strikes to obliterate/ destroy the face, surely it transgresses the moral code of the face being valued and hence considered a sin. However, when it comes to say war or self-defence. Should this rule still stand? Of course, it is safe to assume that during self defense and war it's about life and death and one surely can't help but strike the face. What can we say of such a situation? If such a situation is approved as an exception to the ruling, then would it be forbidden to practise one's combat skills (for either self-defence or war) which includes punching the face? Given, for certain techniques to be applied in the streets and war, they need to be practised and pressure tested. In addition, to my question of whether striking the face is legal under certain situations. Could we argue that striking the face is halal, **in combat sports training**, as long as we make sure we don't harm our partner (i.e. wearing protective headgear and trading light punches)? I hope, someone out there can clarify my concerns regarding this topic. Jazzakallahu Khair

ok before starting I am good at science. so, I believe in existence **Allah** The creator of us because science doesn't always ends with dot it will ended as comma. Few weeks ago I was on bus and saw a man who pulling cart of load. It was pity site that he was full of sweet the load might be above 50 or 70 kg which used to pull by cow but he is pulling it all by himself. then a question appeared on my head. I heard Allah was kind hearted person than anyone then why..? me who doesn't work that much and always want help someone but i can't living a good life but why he doesn't deserve it. I started to doubt my own existence and it's aching my head till now. can someone tell me why this all

Recently I've been searching for a house online, of course I do not want to get involved in Riba Astagfir-Allah, so I started subscribing to all these "sale in execution" property auction websites, so I can see whether I could get some good deals. Anyways, I came across this one car they said you can buy it on "rent to buy". So I looked up "rent to buy" and according to this explanation on Forbes.com you pay a deposit / down payment on the property (car / home/etc) and the rent you pay each month includes rent plus a downpayment on the innitial price of the house, and the price does not fluctuate with the interest rate. Is it Halal to be involved in such a transaction? Please give a reason for your answer, Shukran.

It says in The Kuwaiti encylopedia that the purpose of slavery is to punish the disbelievers for not submitting to God. It also says that slavery is humiliation for the enslaved person. Please see: - https://shamela.ws/book/11430/13765#p1 - https://shamela.ws/book/11430/13763#p1 If this is the purpose of slavery, to humiliate those who do not submit to God, then why does Islam allow a muslim to be a slave? - For example a non muslim slave may convert to Islam, but from what I understand it is still not a leal obligation to free him/her; or a woman can give birth to a slave child who can be raised as a muslim slave. There is a hadith that a fellow muslim cannot be mistreated, so I am asking for clarification.

Salam, I have been missing jummmahs for about 3 weeks now. My mother doesnt allow me as I am in 10th grade(10th grade is a pretty serious grade in India). She says it is not fard to go to jummah prayer. But I have heard somewhere that 2 jummahs can only be missed consequently. Please share me some scholarly insight on this matter as the following day is friday in India.

This has been bugging for like a lot lately. back in the day, I mean 14 centuries ago, there were no clocks, etc, people would simply look at the sky and if they felt it was morning or noon or what ever, would say their prayers. But now a days, for example when fasting or breaking ones fast! we are meticulous about the seconds! and check if the time with extreme measures to see if its time or not!! IMHO this is too much! and we shouldnt realy care this much about time! Why do we care so much and since when has this been like this ? Update: Thanks everyone, some indicated some methods to get a better idea of time, but even with everything you say, looking at shadows, etc, you get a **relative time period** and nothing remotely close to precise timing with a clock down to minutes, and even seconds. More over, at nights(and dawn etc), there was no means to know what time it was, as it is also noted in Quran in one of verses. My point is, it obviously was never a big deal or important matter. The relativeness of time was always intended, since, if God wanted precise timing he would command his messenger to create a clock for his followers! so when he didn't, he must have never intended precise timing!

I was having discussion over roles of wives and someone told me that Hazrat Khadija was successful business women but she use to work from home, because Allah has said for women to stay within bounds of the house, is it true that she use to run her business from home?

This is my first question here. I am a non-muslim. I have a few muslim friends, and I think I have a good track record as a tolerant/accepting person. I have been fascinated by Islam (I have read a couple of books about Islam written by a United States right-wing leaning intellectual). Veils/burqa make me uncomfortable as a male (summers in my region touch 50 degrees celsius). Islam also allows polygamy, which I think puts women at a disadvantage (IMO). I feel like ***(a significant number of?)*** muslim majority countries are poor (Pakistan/Afghanistan/Iraq). Could there be connection between countries' prosperity and their attitude towards women? How do muslims feel about western attitude about feminism?

My parents have put money in a child's saving account for me, but obviously I don't have access to yet until I turn 18 years old. So should I count it among my wealth. I'm worried about this since if I include the money it fulfills the Nisab and makes Zakat obligatory upon me, and it would have been for a few years.